You successfully enter into a FTP session. What transport layer protocol can you deduct is working properly?
A
TCP
B
UDP
C
ICMP
D
IP
Explanation
TCP
FTP is an Application layer protocol that relies on TCP for delivery.
Q-2
What does a web proxy server manage?
A
Web ports
B
Web servers
C
SNMP Web traffic
D
DHCP Web Browsers
Explanation
Web ports
An HTTP Proxy Server (Web Proxy Server), handles the assignment of port numbers when communicating on the Internet.
Q-3
How does a server on the Internet know where to send data packets?
A
Port Number
B
IP protocol
C
Data Packet number
D
Packet Header number
Explanation
Port Number
A Port number is used to determine which service the packets are destined for.
IP addresses are for routing.
Q-4
What relates to terminal emulation?
A
Telnet
B
ARP
C
Tracert
D
Ping
Explanation
Telnet
Telnet is a character based utility that normally uses port 23. But it can be used to check any socket. For a simple example:
telnet localhost 80
Q-5
Which relates to dynamic IP address assignment?
A
Enable DHCP
B
Specify an IP address
C
Enable WINS
D
User level security
Explanation
Enable DHCP
IP is dynamic if you have DHCP enabled and static if you specify IP addresses.
Enabling WINS and user level security are unrelated to whether IP is static or dynamic.
Q-6
When configuring TCP/IP on a workstation, it can be configured automatically using what server component?
A
DNS
B
IP Routing
C
DHCP
D
WINS
E
Disk Management
F
APIPA
Explanation
DHCP
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol when installed and configured on a server will capture DHCP requests and supply the machine with a TCP/IP address and additional information. With the DHCP server, you configure a DHCP scope, which contains a pool of addresses that are available for clients. With the IP address, you can also supply the subnet mask, default gateway, DNS servers, WINS server, AD servers and other information under the scope options. One of the major benefits of DHCP is centralized management. If some change needs to occur, change it on the DHCP server and note it at each and every machine.
Q-7
What three things do you need to specify on a workstation for DNS resolution?
A
Domain name
B
Host name
C
IP address of the DNS server
D
NetBIOS name
Explanation
Domain name
Host name
IP address of the DNS server
This is only true if you do not choose the option to find a DNS server automatically. In that case a DHCP server will find a DNS server for you.
Q-8
When used with an IP address, which command would show the host name associated with that address?
A
NSLOOKUP
B
ARP
C
NETSTAT
D
IPCONFIG
Explanation
NSLOOKUP
For instance, NSLOOKUP 201.35.176.8
NSLOOKUP (Name Server Lookup) is used to interact with DNS. When used with an IP address, it returns the host name associated with that address. The host name is the "A" record associated with the address. You can also check other record types, including:
- CNAME (Canonical Name)
- MX (Mail Exchanger)
- NS (Name Server)
- PTR (Pointer)
- SOA (Start of Authority)
A reverse lookup works in the opposite direction (name to IP address).
Q-9
What is the default protocol for NetWare 5 servers?
A
TCP/IP
B
IPX/SPX
C
NWLink
D
NetBEUI
Explanation
TCP/IP
With the release of NetWare 5 TCP/IP is the default protocol.
Q-10
You are working at a Linux machine and want to see the IP address that was assigned to your NIC by a DHCP server. What is the proper command?
A
Ifconfig
B
Ipconfig
C
Winipcfg
D
Config
Explanation
Ifconfig
IPCONFIG is the Windows 2000/NT command-line utility to find out the actual IP configuration. WINIPCFG is its graphical counterpart, included with Windows 95 and Windows 98.
In Linux/Unix, the functionality is rolled into the IFCONFIG utility. IFCONFIG shows the current settings for the NIC card and enables you to make necessary changes.
Q-11
What command would you use at a Linux workstation to find the hop count to a server?
A
TRACEROUTE
B
TRACERT
C
TRACE
D
PING
Explanation
TRACEROUTE
The TRACERT utility is used in the Microsoft world, whereas the same utility in the Unix/Linux world is known as TRACEROUTE. The original traceroute is a UNIX utility, but nearly all platforms have something similar. Windows includes a traceroute utility called tracert. In Windows 9x, you can run tracert by selecting Start-]Run…, and then entering tracert followed by the domain name of the host. For example:
tracert www.examdrill.com
Traceroute utilities work by sending packets with low time-to-live (TTL) fields. The TTL value specifies how many hops the packet is allowed before it is returned.
Q-12
Which utility allows you to check to see if the IP addresses you believe should be in the ARP table are actually there and if they are mapped to the computers they should be?
A
ARP
B
NSLOOKUP
C
IPCONFIG
D
Netstat
Explanation
ARP
ARP is not only the Address Resolution Protocol but also the utility used to see the entries in the Address Resolution table (which maps MAC addresses to IP addresses). The ARP utility enables you to view the addresses that have been resolved, with the following syntax options:
-a shows the cache
-d deletes an entry
-g shows the cache (same as –a)
-s adds an entry
Q-13
People cannot connect to the mail server. What do you use to troubleshoot port 25, SMTP?
A
Telnet
B
Tracert
C
Netstat
D
SNMP
Explanation
Telnet
It is possible to interact with an SMTP server using telnet to connect to the normal SMTP port 25.
For instance, if the IP address of the server was 64.66.140.230, you would type:
Telnet 64.66.140.230 25
Q-14
Which port number is commonly used with HTTPS?
A
443
B
80
C
110
D
119
E
25
F
23
Explanation
443
HTTPS stands for HTTP with SSL, the Secure Socket Layer.
HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) sends data in plain text between unauthenticated peers over the Internet, which is an insecure network.
HTTPS provides for client and server-side authentication by using certificates, that have been signed by a Certification Agency. The client's web-browser must support SSL, as almost all do. The server must listen on a port other than 80, usually this is port 443.
When the client connects to the secure part of a website using 'https://', it uses port 443 instead of port 80. The server and the client negotiate the SSL protocol version to use and a private session is established. When the client and server exchange certificates, they are able to encrypt and decrypt data they send to each other.
Q-15
What is the default port of a POP3 server?
A
Port 110
B
Port 21
C
Port 23
D
Port 80
Explanation
Port 110
Port 21 = FTP
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 25 = SMTP
Port 80 = HTTP
Q-16
What port is used for Telnet?
A
Port 23
B
Port 21
C
Port 25
D
Port 110
Explanation
PORT 23
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 21 = FTP
Port 25 = SMTP
Port 110 = POP3
Q-17
What is the default port for HTTP?
A
80
B
21
C
23
D
25
Explanation
PORT 80
Port 80 = HTTP
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 21 = FTP
Port 25 = SMTP
Q-18
What is the default port for the FTP protocol?
A
Port 21
B
Port 23
C
Port 25
D
Port 80
Explanation
PORT 21
Port 21 = FTP
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 25 = SMTP
Port 80 = HTTP
Q-19
What port would be used to resolve the name http:/www.examdrill.com?
A
80
B
110
C
25
D
21
E
23
F
119
Explanation
80
This is an HTTP request for a web page. and HTTP uses port 80.
21 - FTP (File Transport Protocol).
23 - Telnet.
25 - SMTP (Simple Mail Transport Protocol).
110 - POP3 (Post Office Protocol ver.3).
119 - NNTP (Network News Transport Protocol).
Q-20
What is the default port of a SMTP server?
A
Port 25
B
Port 21
C
Port 23
D
Port 80
Explanation
PORT 25
Port 21 = FTP
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 25 = SMTP
Port 80 = HTTP
Q-21
SNMP (Simple Network Management protocol) uses which port?
A
Port 161
B
Port 110
C
Port 119
D
Port 80
Explanation
Port 161
Q-22
What utility would produce this information?
A
Tracert
B
Ping
C
Netstat
D
NBTStat
E
ARP
F
IPconfig
Explanation
Tracert
Tracert (short for "Traceroute") traces a route through routers from one IP address to another. This number is represented in "hops". Tracert is used to find bottlenecks on specific routes.
Q-23
What network utility is the following printout from?
A
ARP -a
B
NETSTAT
C
NBTStat
D
Ipconfig
E
ARP -s
F
Winipcfg
Explanation
ARP -a
ARP (Address Resolution protocol) is the first method used for name resolution. After these resolutions are made, the data is stored in cache memory. The ARP utility enables you to display and modify the IP to physical address translation tables.
ARP - a Displays current ARP entries
ARP - (Inet_addr) Displays a specific address
ARP -d Deletes the host for the specified address
ARP -s Adds the host to ARP chase as a static or permanent entry
ARP -(Eth_addr or If_addr) specifies a physical address
Q-24
What utility can you use to find the bottleneck when it takes too long to access a server?
A
Tracert
B
WINS
C
Ping
D
Telnet
Explanation
Tracert
Tracert (short for "Traceroute") traces a route through routers from one IP address to another. This number is represented in "hops". Tracert is used to find bottlenecks on specific routes.
Q-25
What protocol can you use to manage and retrieve information on bridges, routers and gateways?
A
SNMP
B
SMTP
C
DHCP
D
RIP
E
POP3
F
IMAP
Explanation
SNMP
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to monitor network components.
.
Q-26
What command displays the information in the exhibit?
A
Netstat
B
ARP
C
Nbstat
D
Ipconfig
Explanation
Netstat
Q-27
Which would you use to display network statistics? (Choose two.)
A
Netstat-s
B
Netstat -S
C
NBTStat -S
D
ARP - a
E
ARP -s
F
NBTStat -s
Explanation
Netstat -s, Netstat -S
Netstat switches are not case sensitive. Therefore either "-s" or "-S" will work.
Q-28
Which utility do you use to transfer a file from a UNIX server to your workstation?
A
FTP
B
Netstat
C
Telnet
D
NBTStat
E
Windows Explorer
F
ARP
Explanation
FTP
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is an Application layer protocol that is used to download files on the Internet.
Netstat is a utility used to display protocol statistics and current TCP/IP connections.
Telnet is a remote terminal emulation protocol used to provide access to a remote host.
NBTStat displays NetBIOS computer names that have been resolved to IP address, among other things
Q-29
What is the correct syntax for adding IP address 199.266.10.5 and MAC address 00 90 32 98 34 06 as static entries in the ARP table?
A
Arp -s 199.266.10.5 / 00 90 32 98 34 06
B
Arp -s 00 90 32 98 34 06 / 199.266.10.5
C
Arp -R 00 90 32 98 34 06 / 199.266.10.5
D
Arp -R 199.266.10.5 / 00 90 32 98 34 06
Explanation
Arp -s 199.266.10.5 / 00 90 32 98 34 06
Arp -s adds a static, or permanent entry to the ARP table
the IP address is listed before the MAC address
Note: ARP uses lower case switches
Q-30
Which TCP/IP utility determines the number of routers (hops) an IP packet passes through on its way to its source destination?
A
FTP
B
Telnet
C
Tracert
D
Ping
Explanation
TRACERT
Tracert counts the number of hops it takes a packet to arrive at destination. Each router would count as one hop.
Q-31
Which TCP/IP protocol is for networking management?
A
SNMP
B
SMTP
C
UDP
D
Telnet
Explanation
SNMP
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to monitor the status of network components and activity. Example: Network Monitor (Agent) is an SNMP agent that must first be installed, then, it enables Administrators to monitor network traffic on each segment. This would be useful if your entire network gets bogged down.
Q-32
Name three applications that are connection oriented.
A
FTP
B
TELNET
C
SMTP
D
PING
Explanation
FTP
Telnet
SMTP
Most of the more familiar Internet applications use TCP, the connection-oriented transport layer Internet service. These services include Telnet (remote login), SMTP (for electronic mail), FTP (for file transfer), and HTTP (for the Web). Applications that use TCP are considered connection-oriented.
Utilities like PING use User Datagram Protocol (UDP) and this makes them connection-less.
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) and IP are not connection oriented.
Q-33
What TCP/IP utility displays all current connections and ports to a workstation?
A
Netstat -a
B
NBTStat
C
Arp
D
Tracert
E
Netstat - e
F
Netstat -r
Explanation
Netstat -a displays all current connections and ports to a workstation.
Q-34
What commands can you use to show the route table in Windows NT 4.0 (Choose two.)
A
Netstat -r
B
Route
C
NBTStat
D
Tracert
E
Netstat - a
F
Netstat
Explanation
Netstat -r, Route
NETSTAT -r displays the routing table
ROUTE displays or modifies the local routing table
Q-35
What command will display statistics on a per protocol basis?
A
netstat -s
B
Telnet
C
nbtstat -s
D
Arp-s
Explanation
netstat -s
There must be a space between the command ("netstat", )and the switch ("-s").
Q-36
What can you use for terminal emulation to give the appearance of logging on locally to a Unix host?
A
FTP
B
Telnet
C
ARP
D
Tracert
Explanation
Telnet
Telnet is the Internet standard protocol for remote login. Telnet runs on top of TCP/IP. A Telnet sessions allow a user to establish a dumb-terminal connection to a server and run processes on the server.
Q-37
What IP address is in the B class?
A
191.023.21.54
B
125.123.123.2
C
192.128.32.56
D
226.15.122.78
Explanation
191.023.21.54
You determine the Network class by the value of the first octet.
191.023.21.54 is a Class B Network address.
125.123.123.2 is a Class A Network address.
192.128.32.56 is a Class C Network address.
226.15.122.78 is out of range.
Class A: First octet is 1 - 126
Class B: First octet is 128 - 191
Class C: First octet is 192 - 223
Note: 127 is not available and 224 and higher is not available..
Q-38
What is an example of CIDR?
A
123.0.23.0:345
B
172.21.165.1/19
C
34:OF:22:99:WE:4X
D
127.0.0.1
Explanation
172.21.165.1/19
Short for Classless Inter-Domain Routing, a new IP addressing scheme that replaces the older system based on classes A, B, and C. With CIDR, a single IP address can be used to designate many unique IP addresses. A CIDR IP address looks like a normal IP address except that it ends with a slash followed by a number, called the IP prefix. For example: 172.200.0.0/16
Q-39
With TCP/IP, what is the maximum number of hosts that may exist on a Class C network?
A
254
B
255
C
1024
D
64K
Explanation
254
With a Class C network, the first three octets identify the network segment. Only the last octet may be used to identify the individual hosts.
Since the last octet may not contain either a "0" or a "255", there are only 254 possible addresses available.
Q-40
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
A
255
B
128
C
64
D
32
Explanation
128
IPv6 uses a 128 bit addressing scheme that will allow more that 70 octillion (70 followed by 27zeros) addresses. That's enough for each person on earth to have more than a million IP addresses.
Note: IPv4 uses a 32 bit scheme that allows for around 17 million addresses.
Q-41
What is the default subnet mask for class C networks?
A
255.255.255.0
B
255.0.0.0
C
255.255.0.0
D
255.255.255.224
Explanation
255.255.255.0
Class A Default = 255.0.0.0
Class B Default = 255.255.0.0
Class C Default = 255.255.255.0
Q-42
An Internet IP address 128.192.223.1 belongs to what Network class?
A
Class B
B
Class A
C
Class C
D
Class D
Explanation
Class B
You determine the Network class by the value of the first octet. In the above IP address the first octet is "128" so it is a Class B Network.
Class A: First octet is 1 - 126
Class B: First octet is 128 - 191
Class B: First octet is 192 - 223
Note: 127 is not available and 224 and higher is not available.
Q-43
Which IP address is valid?
A
126.200.201.15
B
127.1.0.1
C
127.0.0.1
D
196.110.105.0
Explanation
126.200.201.15
126.200.201.15 is the only valid Class A address listed
127.0.0.1 is the localhost loopback address
127.1.0.1 is invalid because 127 may be used in the first octet
196.110.105.0 is invalid because the fourth octet of an address may not be either 0 or 255
Q-44
What would you type to test your local TCP/IP connection? (Choose two.)
A
Ping localhost
B
Ping 127.0.0.1
C
Ping 127.0.0.0
D
Ping another workstation on your segment.
Explanation
Ping 127.0.0.1
Ping localhost
The keyword here is "local". This is referring to your own computer. The IP address "127.0.0.1" is reserved as the loopback address for the local PC. The hostname for this loopback address is "localhost". Therefore, pinging Either the loopback address or the loopback hostname tests to see if your computer's TCP/IP settings are correct.
Note that "localhost" is one word, there is no space between local and host.
Q-45
Which class is the following IP address?
A
Class A
B
Class B
C
Class C
D
Class D
Explanation
Class A
You could recognize this by the subnet mask which identifies which part of the IP address is the network and which is the host. Or by the first octet of the IP address.
Class A Default Subnet mask = 255.0.0.0
Class B Default Subnet mask = 255.255.0.0
Class C Default Subnet mask = 255.255.255.0
Class A IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 1and 126.
Class B IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 128 and 191.
Class C IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 192 and 224.
Q-46
What class is the IP address of the DNS server shown in the output below?
A
Class A
B
Class B
C
Class C
D
Class D
Explanation
Class a
Using the default subnet mask the following is true:
Class A IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 1 and 126.
Class B IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 128 and 191.
Class C IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 192 and 224.
Q-47
What TCP header field do a network's end nodes use to keep track of packets in a connection?
A
Sequence Number
B
Packet monitor
C
Application Layer
D
Datagram ID
Explanation
Sequence Number
In order for TCP to provide reliable delivery, sequence numbers are used to keep track which data has been transmitted and received. TCP will arrange for retransmission if it determines that data has been lost.
Upon a TCP/IP connection to a host, the host generates an Initial Sequence Number (ISN). This sequence number is used in the communication between itself and the host to help keep track of each packet and to ensure that the conversation continues properly. Both the host and the client generate and use these sequence numbers in TCP connections.
Q-48
What is the anagram which describes the encapsulation of NetBEUI inside a TCP/IP packet, essentially making it routable?
A
NBTCP
B
SAMBA
C
PPTP
D
VPN
Explanation
NBTCP
Microsoft's solution to the problem that NetBEUI cannot pass through routers is called "NetBEUI over TCP/IP". This allows NetBEUI to be routed (at least in a sense). Since TCP/IP was designed to be very flexible, it is possible to encase a NetBEUI packet inside a TCP/IP packet and send NetBEUI through a router. This is known as NetBEUI over TCP/IP or NBTCP for short.
Q-49
Your network uses a SLIP protocol. You are having problems getting FTP to work, and you are also having problems connecting to the Internet. What should you do?
A
Change to PPP
B
Use Tracert find the bottleneck to the FTP server
C
Run "Ping the localhost"
D
Install a proxy with TCP/IP
Explanation
Change to PPP
PPP is a much more robust protocol than the older SLIP. PPP has several advantages over SLIP. PPP uses authentication. It is designed to operate both over asynchronous connections and bit-oriented synchronous systems and it can configure connections to a remote network dynamically.
Q-50
What protocols would the VPN use to connect your company's three remote LANs? (Choose three.)
A
TCP/IP
B
PPP
C
PPTP
D
AppleTalk
Explanation
TCP/IP, PPP, PPTP
These three protocols are used to create a VPN (Virtual Private Network).
Q-51
Which network architecture provides guaranteed access for each computer on the network?
A
Token Ring
B
AppleTalk
C
Ethernet
D
10Base5
Explanation
Token Ring
Token Ring passes the token to each node in turn, guaranteeing access by each computer.
AppleTalk uses a collision avoidance but does not guarantee access.
Ethernet uses collision detection and does not guarantee access.
10Base5 is a cable type and not a network architecture.
Q-52
What is a disadvantage of using a bus topology on a large network?
A
Coax cable is very susceptible to cable faults
B
Cabling is very expensive
C
Each node must be terminated and grounded
D
Extremely sensitive to electrical interference
Explanation
Coax cable is very susceptible to cable faults
Coax cable is relatively inexpensive. (At least thinnet is) which rules out expense.
Only the nodes on each end must be terminated and only one of them can be grounded.
Coax cable is somewhat resistant to electrical interference.
Q-53
Which network topology has two or more network cables attached to each computer and provides for the greatest fault tolerance?
A
Ring
B
Star
C
Bus
D
Mesh
Explanation
Mesh
Mesh networks would require multiple connections from each computer.
Token ring needs two sets of wires, but they are generally enclosed in a single cable and use a single connector on the NIC.
Star and Bus networks require only one cable per computer
Q-54
Which topology uses the least amount of cable?
A
Bus
B
Ring
C
Star
D
Mesh
Explanation
Bus
Bus topologies typically run from computer to computer and are likely to use less cable than other topologies.
Q-55
Which WAN technology provides transmission speeds more than 100 Mbps?
A
ATM
B
T3
C
FDDI
D
ISDN
Explanation
ATM
ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is an advanced packet switching technology that can provide speeds up to 622 Mbps using fixed length 53 byte cells.
T3 lines uses 672 64K B-channels for a total bandwidth of44.736 Mbps
ISDN Basic Rate (BRI) = 128 Kbps
ISDN Primary Rate (PRI) uses a full T1 line
FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface) uses fiber optics and Token Passing to operate at speeds up to 100 Mbps on a true physical ring.
Q-56
What topology does the network diagram below depict?
A
Star
B
Bus
C
Star wired Ring
D
Mesh
E
ARCNet
F
Token Bus
Explanation
Star
Even though it doesn't look like a star, all the hosts are connected through the hub. This is what makes it a star.
Q-57
What topology does the network diagram below depict?
A
Bus
B
Star
C
Mesh
D
Ring
Explanation
Bus
All of the machines are attached at one and only one place to the cable. A break anywhere along the main cable would mean a disruption of the whole network.
Q-58
Which two are synonymous?
A
ROM
B
Firmware
C
Freeware
D
RAM
Explanation
ROM, Firmware
Firmware is similar to software, except is generally stored in Read Only Memory (ROM). Some systems may store firmware in "Flash" memory. Flash memory allows firmware updates to be made through software, while firmware stored in ROM typically requires the chip to be replaced in order to upgrade the firmware.
ROM (Read Only Memory) is frequently used for firmware. A good example is the BIOS chip.
Q-59
The address "00-60-08-75-43-d7" could be called which of these names? (Choose four.)
A
MAC address
B
Ethernet Address
C
Physical address
D
Hardware address
E
IP address
F
Subnet Mask
Explanation
MAC address
Ethernet Address
Physical address
Hardware address
The six byte hex number given above is a MAC (Media Access Control) address and may also be referred to as Hardware address, Ethernet address, or Physical address. MAC addresses are burned into the NIC and should not be changed.
IP Address is a "logical" address that may be changed with software, or if DHCP is enabled, it is changed dynamically.
Subnet Mask is not an address, it defines a range of IP addresses that a subnet may use.
Q-60
What should you do first when installing a new piece of hardware or software?
A
View the Readme file.
B
Check Manufacturer's website.
C
Try it and figure it out for yourself. (Real men don't read directions.)
D
Call manufacturer's tech support hotline.
Explanation
View the Readme file.
Manufacturers generally put the most up to date information in the Readme files which accompany their products. In lots of cases, the Readme file has more recent info that the instruction manual.
The manufacturer's website may have the latest info too, but you should view the Readme file first.
You should make a reasonable effort to solve problems yourself before calling Tech support hotlines.
Q-61
Where would you look for possible updates to keep the network up to date. (Choose two.)
A
Patch
B
Service Pack
C
Ram
D
Netlink Update
Explanation
Patch
Service Pack
Either a software patch or Service Pack for the Microsoft OS would be a way to keep the Network up to date.
More RAM would likely make the server or workstation run faster, but that's not the same as keeping it up to date with the latest improvements to software and the OS
Q-62
What transport technology translates names of network hosts into network addresses?
A
Service Lookup
B
Name Resolution
C
System ID
D
Network Management
E
NAT
F
UDP
Explanation
Name Resolution
With UNIX networks, this is done with DNS servers. Microsoft networks also use WINS servers to translate NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
Q-63
What does a firewall do?
A
Protects your data from unauthorized users
B
Isolates IP addresses from people on the Internet
C
Isolates the server in case of a fire
D
Provides user level security
Explanation
Protects your data from unauthorized users
Firewalls check all network traffic from an outside source and only allow access by authorized users.
Q-64
Most of your network users access the same web page on the Internet each day. You already have a proxy server. What could you add to speed up performance?
A
An HTTP proxy
B
An IP proxy
C
An FTP proxy
D
More WEB memory
Explanation
An HTTP proxy
An HTTP Proxy caches web pages for faster access.
An IP Proxy, sometimes simply referred to as a Proxy Server displays a single IP address to the Internet while allowing many users access to the Internet through the single IP address.
An FTP proxy is used for file transfers.
WEB memory - who knows what they'll think of next?
Q-65
In which ways are Client/Server networks better than Peer-to-Peer networks? (Choose four.)
A
Better security on Client/Server network.
B
Better performance on a Client/Server network.
C
Client/Server is easier to administer on large networks.
D
Backup is better on Client/Server networks.
E
Lower cost equipment for Client/Server networks.
F
Less skill required for administrator on Client/Server network
Explanation
Security is better on a Client/Server network.
Performance is better on a Client/Server network.
Client/Server is easier to administer on large networks.
Backup is better on Client/Server networks.
Client/Server networks use centralized security, which is more effective than peer to peer networks. Client/Server networks can assign user rights down to the file level, meaning that some users may have specified rights to a specific file and others may be prohibited form accessing it. Or they may have read rights, but not be able to edit the file.
Overall, Client/Server networks perform better than peer to peer networks and can be administered more efficiently. But Client/Server networks require a highly trained administrator. Peer to Peer networks do not require the high level of technical expertise of Client/Server networks, but they become very time consuming to manage as the network grows. This why the centralized administration of Client/Server networks is more efficient. Client/Server networks require more expensive hardware and software, like servers and server software. Backup strategies are much more efficient and manageable with Client/Server networks.
Q-66
Which provides services for network users?
A
Server
B
Local host
C
Workstation
D
ISDN
E
Hub
F
Router
Explanation
Server
Servers may provide a variety of services such as file storage, centralized database (SQL Server), network security, etc.
A workstation typically depends on the server for some services. The other two are bogus choices.
Q-67
What can you use to reduce broadcast storms?
A
Use a router
B
Use a repeater
C
Use a hub
D
Use a bridge
Explanation
Use a Router
All the other choices would pass broadcasts and would be of no help. Broadcast storms are a sudden flood of messages that clogs up your network. It is like everyone talking at once on a telephone line.
Q-68
What is the reserved loopback IP address (IPv4) that can be used to test the configuration of the local IP device?
A
127.0.0.1
B
255.255.255.0
C
127.0.0.127
D
128.0.0.1
Explanation
127.0.0.1
127.0.0.1 is the reserved loopback address for the local computer. It automatically has the name "Localhost" assigned to it.
Ping 127.0.0.1 and Ping Localhost have exactly the same results.
Q-69
You have implemented a star topology for your network with a mesh between the routers. What kind of topology are you using?
A
Hybrid
B
Mesh
C
Bus
D
Star
E
Ring
F
Logical
Explanation
Hybrid
Most networks use a mix of the four topologies. This is known as a hybrid. This is simply a catch-all term for any combination of the other topologies.
Q-70
You have a Windows 98 machine with a FAT32 partition and want to connect it to your companies network. However, the server you need to connect to is running UNIX with an UFS (UNIX File System) partition. What can you do to enable your Windows machine to read the data on an NTFS partition?
A
Do nothing
B
Use a gateway
C
Use a bridge
D
Use a hub
Explanation
Do nothing
The whole idea of the OSI is to make dissimilar systems communicate. Your request for data will travel down through the physical layer and be read on the other machine without regard to what machine made the request.
In addition, Windows 2000 Server can run on three types of file systems: FAT (File Allocation Table), FAT32, and NTFS (NT File System or New Technology File System). FAT is the traditional file system of DOS, Windows, and Windows 95, offering support for long file names. FAT32 is the default file system for Windows 98.
Q-71
How many bits are Ethernet hardware addresses?
A
48 bits
B
12 bits
C
24 bits
D
32 bits
Explanation
48 bits
Ethernet hardware addresses are 48 bits, expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits (0-9, plus A-F, capitalized). This gives a theoretical 281,474,976,710,656 addresses. This is more than 56,000 MAC addresses for every man, woman and child on earth! But just imagine that every computer and piece of networking equipment which could in the future be Internet enabled, will need a MAC address. This includes devices like ovens, security alarms or video recorders.
Q-72
You have four computers each ten meters from the next closest computer on a peer-to-peer network. Using a bus topology how much cable would you use to connect them?
A
30 meters
B
40 meters
C
50 meters
D
60 meters
Explanation
30 meters
This is a simple math problem. Let us not assume you had to route the cable up the wall and through the plenum. Four points 10 meters apart can be directly connected using three lines, each 10 meters in length.
Q-73
Your are connecting a UNIX/Linux workstation to an outside WAN server. Which two steps should you perform to properly configure eth0?
A
Set the subnet mask.
B
Set the default gateway.
C
Run ifip eth0.
D
Set the MAC address.
Explanation
Set the subnet mask.
Set the default gateway.
Never set the MAC address. Any node whether UNIX or Windows or Macintosh, will need an IP address, subnet mask and default gateway to access any resources on a WAN because all resources are on the other sides of routers.
Q-74
How many nodes may exist on a 10BaseT network?
A
1024
B
925
C
90
D
30
Explanation
1024
By using active hubs there may be up to 1024 nodes per 10BaseT network.
Q-75
Your network uses 10Base2 cable which is 180 meters long, each end terminated with a 50-ohm terminator. Both terminators are grounded. There are 25 Workstations connected to the cable. Why won't it work?
A
Too many grounds.
B
10Base2 cable does not need terminators.
C
Terminators should be 25 ohms.
D
Too many Workstations for this cable.
Explanation
Too many grounds.
With 10Base2 each end of the trunk segment is terminated in 50-ohm terminator but only one of the terminators is grounded.
Q-76
What is the cable length for 100baseTX?
A
100 meters
B
150 meters
C
185 meters
D
500 meters
Explanation
100 meters
The 100BASE-TX specifications allow a segment of up to 100 meters. Two 100 meter 100BASE-TX segments can be connected together through a single Class I or Class II repeater. This provides a system with a total diameter of 200 meters.
Q-77
What is the maximum length of a Cable Segment for 10Base2?
A
185 meters
B
100 meters
C
500 meters
D
925 meters
Explanation
185 METERS
Some specifications for a 10Base2 Thin Ethernet network are as follows:
- maximum number of trunk segments = 5
- maximum trunk segment length = 607 feet (185 meters)
- maximum network trunk cable = 3035 feet (925 meters)
- maximum number of stations on a trunk segment = 30
- minimum distance between T connectors = 1.5 feet (0.5 meters)
Also:
- each end of the trunk segment is terminated in 50-ohms
- one of the terminators is grounded
- connector splices are kept to a minimum
Cabling
- BNC-T type connectors
- RG58-AU 50-ohm cable, 0.2" (Coaxial Cable)
Q-78
Which of the following is a term which means transmitting multiple signals over the same cable simultaneously? (Choose 2)
A
Broadband
B
Multiplexing
C
Dualband
D
Duplexing
Explanation
Broadband, Multiplexing
Broadband use frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) to simultaneously transmit multiple signals over the same media by assigning a separate portion of the available frequency spectrum to each of the individual channels.
Q-79
The diagram below is a representation of which rule?
A
The 5/4/3 Rule
B
The 3/4/5 Rule
C
The 10base2 Rule
D
The 80% / 20% Rule
Explanation
The 5/4/3 Rule
If you're working in a thick Ethernet environment, you must know it's limits. You need to know the 5/4/3 rule.
According to the 5/4/3 rule, the maximum number of segments in a thick Ethernet environment is five, and these five segments are connected by four repeaters. But not every segment can have computers attached. In fact, only three segments can have computers attached; the remaining two segments can only be used to extend the length of the network.
10BASE2 and 10BASE-T also follow the 5/4/3 rule.
Q-80
What are the advantages of POTS? (Choose three.)
A
Is readily available.
B
Least expensive.
C
It can run at speeds of 64kbps.
D
Easy to configure.
Explanation
Easy to configure.
Least expensive.
Is readily available.
POTS (plain Old Telephone Service) can only run up to 56 Kbps. You may see POTS refereed to as Publicly Switched Telephone Network (PSTN).
Q-81
As it travels along a cable a signal becomes distorted and weakened. What is the term for this?
A
Attenuation
B
Crosstalk
C
Degeneration
D
Fragmentation
Explanation
Attenuation
Crosstalk is where signals from adjacent wires interfere with each other.
Degeneration make sound right but that is not the answer.
Fragmentation is for disk drives
Q-82
What does the 5-4-3 rule mean in networking terminology?
A
5 Segments, 4 Repeaters and 3 populated Segments
B
5 Repeaters, 4 Segments and 3 Grounds
C
5 Segments, 4 Routers and 3 Hubs
D
5 Segments, 4 Repeaters and 3 Hubs per Segment
Explanation
5 Segments, 4 Repeaters and 3 populated Segments
The 5-4-3 rule applies to Ethernet bus networks. It specifies that the network can have up to five segments connected by four repeaters. Only three of the segments may be populated.
For 10Base5 (Thicknet), there may be 100 nodes per segment. For 10Base2 (Thinnet) there may be only 30 nodes per segment.
Q-83
The connectors labeled TX and RX in the exhibit represent what?
A
Fiber optics
B
Thinnet
C
UTP
D
Thicknet
Explanation
Fiber Optic
Q-84
In a token ring network, how would a patch cable be used?
A
To connect two MAUs together
B
To connect two Hubs together
C
To connect a workstation to a MAU
D
To Connect a workstation to a printer
Explanation
To connect two MAUs together
Q-85
What cable may be used for a distance of 1KM without having to use a repeater?
A
10baseFX
B
10base2
C
100baseT
D
10baseT
Explanation
10BASEFX
We normally associate Fiber Optics with 100BaseFX, but 10BASEFX is a legitimate choice.
10Base2: no more than 185 meters
100BaseT: no more than 100 meters
10BaseT: no more than 100 meters
Q-86
Which 100BaseT Fast Ethernet uses two pairs of Cat 5 cable?
A
100BaseTX
B
Fiber Optic
C
UTP
D
10Base2
Explanation
100BaseTX requires two pairs of Cat 5 cable.
UTP is not a form of Fast Ethernet.
10Base2 uses thinnet cable.
Q-87
Which cable is most resistant to wire-tapping or EMI?
A
Fiber Optic
B
STP
C
Coaxial
D
UTP
Explanation
FIBER OPTIC
Fiber Optic if impervious to EMI and cannot be tapped without disrupting the network communication.
Q-88
Which cable type is used for 10BaseT?
A
UTP
B
Thinnet
C
STP
D
Thicknet
Explanation
UTP
UTP Cat3 or Cat5 may be used with 10BaseT
Q-89
What is the maximum cable length for 10BaseT with Cat 5 cable?
A
100 Meters
B
100 Feet
C
180 Meters
D
180 Feet
Explanation
100 Meters
Q-90
Which cable supports a speed of 100 Mbps on a 100BaseTX Network?
A
Category 5
B
Fiber Optic
C
Coaxial
D
Category 3
Explanation
Category 5
Fiber optics can support speeds of 100 Mbps but easily recognizable by the "F" for fiber, as in 100BaseFX. Coax will only support 10Mbps.
Cat 3 may be used for 100 Mbps in some circumstances but definitely not for 100BaseTX.
Q-91
What would you associate with 802.3 100BaseT Fast Ethernet?
What is the unique characteristic of a crossover cable?
A
Transmit and receive wires are reversed.
B
Transmit and receive wires are grounded.
C
The wires are twisted together.
D
It is used for a phone line.
Explanation
Transmit and receive wires are reversed.
In a crossover cable, the transmit and receive wires are reversed. This is useful for connecting two servers together through their respective network ports. A crossover cable is also used to connect to hubs or switches together if they do not contain an uplink port that performs this wire crossover.
Q-93
What media is most likely to be used with ARCNet?
A
RG62
B
RG58 (Thinnet)
C
RG8 or RG 11 (Thicknet)
D
RG59 (CATV)
Explanation
RG62
ARCNet can use different types of cable, but the most common is RG62 (93 ohm coax). UTP and fiber optics may also be used with ARCNet.
Short for Attached Resource Computer network, ARCNet is one of the oldest, simplest, and least expensive types of local-area network. ARCNet was introduced by Datapoint Corporation in 1977. It uses a token-ring architecture, supports data rates of 2.5 Mbps, and connects up to 255 computers. A special advantage of ARCNet is that it permits various types of transmission media -- twisted-pair wire, coaxial cable, and fiber optic cable -- to be mixed on the same network.
A new specification, called ARCNet Plus, will support data rates of 20 Mbps.
Q-94
Which has a maximum length of 25 meters per segment?
A
1000Base-CX Gigabit Ethernet (copper)
B
10BaseT
C
10Base2
D
10Base5
Explanation
1000Base-CX Gigabit Ethernet (copper)
Ethernet Maximum Cable Segment Length
10Base5- 500 Meters
10Base2 - 185 Meters
10Base-T - 100 Meters
10Base-FL - 2000 Meters
100Base-TX - 100 Meters
100Base-FX -2000 Meters
100Base-T4 - 100 Meters
100Base-T2 - 100 Meters
1000Base-CX - 25 Meters
For more info on Gigabit Ethernet: http://www.rad.com/networks/2001/ethernet/next.htm
Q-95
What stops transmission signals from bouncing at the opposite ends of the network’s end nodes?
A
Terminators
B
Dampers
C
Packets
D
Frames
E
Loopback connector
F
EMI filters
Explanation
Terminators
On a 10Base2 network, a 50 ohm terminator is attached to the "T" connector on the last workstation on each end of the cable. This keeps the signal from bouncing or reflecting back down the cable.
Q-96
If your network is bogged down and you are using a hub, what is your first choice to speed things up?
A
Switch
B
Bridge
C
Gateway
D
Switch to a faster protocol like NetBEUI
Explanation
Switch
A switch can be configured to direct network traffic between specific host at the full bandwidth and would be the first choice to accomplish this objective.
Switching to NetBEUI would slow things down even more. Even though it is faster on smaller networks, it communicates with broadcast storms and would make this matter worse.
Q-97
Which of the following provides bandwidth of about 1.5Mbps?
A
T1 line
B
T2 line
C
T3 line
D
ISDN
Explanation
T1
T1 lines uses twenty-four 64K B-channels for a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps
T2 lines uses ninety-six 64K B-channels for a total bandwidth of 6.312 Mbps
T3 lines uses 672 64K B-channels for a total bandwidth of44.736 Mbps
ISDN Basic Rate (BRI) = 128 Kbps
ISDN Primary Rate (PRI) uses a full T1 line
Q-98
Gigabit Ethernet cannot be run on copper cable. True or False?
A
True
B
False
Explanation
False
This statement is false. The Gigabit Ethernet standards define four physical layer signaling systems: 1000BASE-SX (short wavelength fiber), 1000BASE-LX (long wavelength fiber), 1000BASE-CX (short run copper) and 1000BASE-T (100-meter, four-pair Category 5 UTP).
Q-99
Gigabit Ethernet runs at which speed?
A
1000 Mbps
B
200 Mbps
C
100 Mbps
D
10 Mbps
Explanation
1000 Mbps
Gigabit Ethernet has been demonstrated to be a viable solution for increased bandwidth requirements for growing networks. Early implementation of the technology will be in high-speed backbones and specialized workgroups. As desktop speeds increase and LAN application patterns change, Gigabit Ethernet will begin to migrate to the desktop for general applications. To be most effective, Gigabit Ethernet must be capable of operating over widely-installed cable plants.
Q-100
Fast Ethernet runs at which speed?
A
100 Mbps
B
10 Mbps
C
1000 Mbps
D
200 Mbps
Explanation
100 Mbps
Q-101
Who issues MAC addresses for NICs?
A
Network administrator
B
InterNIC
C
NIC manufacturer
D
NIC manufacturer's website
Explanation
NIC manufacturer
Each Network Card (NIC) has a burned in MAC address, This is done by the manufacturer of the NIC card.
You can't get a MAC address from a web site.
The InterNIC is a resource organization for the Internet.
The Network administrator should stick with the default MAC addresses.
Q-102
In a wireless network what replaces the physical cables?
A
Radio signals
B
Ether signals
C
Electrons
D
Light waves
Explanation
Radio signals
In a wireless network the physical cables are replaced by radio signals. The IEEE 802.11 standard defines wireless networking, with most devices adhering to the updated 802.11b. To implement wireless networking, you simply add a wireless access point to the physical network; it handles the traffic between the wireless network cards.
Q-103
Pin 2 on a loopback plug or crossover cable is connected to which pin on the other side on a UTP implementation?
A
Pin 6.
B
Pin 3.
C
Pin 2.
D
Pin 1.
Explanation
Pin 6.
In the implementation of a crossover, the wires on each end of the cable are crossed. Transmit to Receive and Receive to Transmit on each side. Pin 1 on one side connects to pin 3 on the other side, and pin 2 connects to pin 6 on the opposite end.
The purpose of a loopback plug is to connect the output pins on the interface to the input pins so that any data transmitted over the interface is "looped back" and received at the same interface.
Q-104
What is the maximum length of a 1000Base-CX segment?
A
25m
B
100m
C
550m
D
3km
Explanation
25m
1000BASE-CX (two pairs of 150-ohm shielded twisted pair cable for a maximum length of 25 meters) .
Q-105
Which is a Fiber Optic connector?
A
D
B
A
C
B
D
C
Explanation
D
Item D is an ST connector used for fiber optics
Q-106
The connector labeled AUI relate to what? (Choose all that apply)
A
Thicknet
B
DIX
C
Vampire tap
D
10Base5
E
Thinnet
F
10Base2
Explanation
Thicknet, DIX, Vampire tap, 10Base5
AUI connectors are used with Thicknet cable , also called 10Base5.
AUI connectors adapt between different cabling types and are
also known as a DIX (Digital, Intel, Xerox) connectors.
Vampire taps are used with Thicknet cabling to attach the transceiver
to the Thicknet backbone.
Q-107
The connector A in the diagram is for .....
A
BNC (Coax)
B
Fiber
C
Thicknet
D
UTP
Explanation
BNC (Coax)
Item A is a BNC connector and is used for coax
Q-108
The connector C in the diagram is for .....
A
RJ45
B
RJ11
C
Coax
D
Fiber
Explanation
RJ-45
Item C is an RJ45 connector and it is used for UTP cable.
Note: RJ11 only has four pins.
Q-109
What is the connector called in 10Base5?
A
AUI
B
BNC
C
RJ45
D
RJ11
Explanation
AUI
AUI (Attachment Unit Interface) is a connector used with Thicknet (also called 10Base5). In this case the Transceiver is typically attached to the drop cable which attaches to the main cable with a "Vampire" tap.
AUI connectors may also be called DIX connectors (Digital/Intel/Xerox), the original developers of Ethernet.
Q-110
You have an older coax NIC and wish to use a transceiver to connect it to a CAT 5 cable. Which connector would the transceiver connect to on the NIC?
A
B
B
A
C
C
D
D
Explanation
Diagram B in our exhibit is an AUI connector. This is used for older coax connections.
Newer coax cable connectors use the BNC connectors.
Q-111
What connectors are used on SCSI cables? (Choose three.)
A
DB 25, female
B
50 Pin Centronics
C
Mini 68
D
36 pin Centronics
Explanation
DB 25
FEMALE 50 PIN
CENTRONICS MINI 68
Q-112
What does connector B in the diagram represent?
A
AUI
B
BNC
C
STP
D
RJ45
Explanation
AUI connector
Q-113
Which is used with the IEEE 802.3 10Base2 standard?
A
BNC Connectors
B
RJ-45 Connectors
C
STP cable
D
RG-11 Connectors
Explanation
BNC CONNECTORS
10Base2 uses BNC connectors
RJ45 connectors are used with Unshielded Twisted Pair (10BaseT)
STP cable is used with Token Ring
RG-11 connectors are used for telephones.
Q-114
You have a 10baseT network and want to add one more client. You only have an old network card which has an AUI connector. Which of the following would you use to connect the client to the network?
A
Transceiver
B
Bus
C
Cable modem
D
BNC connector
Explanation
Transceiver
Transceivers can be used to convert the physical connection from one Ethernet type to another.
Q-115
You ordered a T1 link to your LAN and you need to connect it to a router. Your router has a V.35 interface. You need a special device to connect it to the T1 line. This device is labeled in our diagram with the letter A. What is this device called?
A
CSU/DSU
B
Modem
C
Switch
D
Codex
Explanation
CSU/DSU
A CSU/DSU (channel service unit/data service unit) is required to interface the T1 line from your ISP to your router. These devices are used to connect LANs to WANs. Somewhat like a modem the CSU/DSU takes care of handshaking, error correction and data stream translation.
Q-116
The devices in the center of the diagram are what?
A
MAU
B
Bridge
C
Hub
D
Switch
Explanation
MAU
The Ring In and Ring Out ports, along with the double wires going to each workstation indicate this is a Token Ring network. Also referred to as a Star Wired Ring.
That means the device is a MAU
Note the single line running from the Ring In to the Ring Out ports. There is no need for double wires to connect these two ports. Their purpose is to complete the "ring" when only one MAU is used. If we had more than one MAU, they would connect the MAUs together. Also, in reality, the double lines going to the workstations would be contained in a single cable with two or more pairs of conductors in it.
Q-117
If you need to have 115200 bps of transmission rate for serial communication, your equipment needs to conform to which UART standard?
A
UART 6200
B
UART 8250
C
UART 16450
D
UART 16550
Explanation
UART 16550
Virtually all personal computers use a family of chips produced by National Semiconductor to run serial ports. Known as UARTs (universal asynchronous receiver-transmitters), these chips convert an 8-bit wide parallel data path to a 1-bit wide serial path. The following is a list of several of changes the UART has undergone through during the PC era.
INS8250 The original chip used in the IBM PC, the INS8250 was unreliable at speeds over 9600 bps.
16450 Designed for 286-based PCs, the 16450 is the first UART that reliably operated at 9600 bps and above.
16550 The 16550 allowed use of more than one DMA channel to achieve improved throughput over the 16450.
16550A Is an improved version of the 16550. It adds support for First in-First Out (FIFO) communication. This is the only UART that should be installed in current PCs or add-on cards that are used to provide expansion card-based COM ports.
Q-118
Where can you insert an ISA NIC?
A
A EISA slot
B
A PCI slot
C
A MCA slot
D
AGP
Explanation
EISA
EISA (Extended Industry Standard Architecture) accepts ISA cards.
PCI and MCA do not accept ISA cards.
Q-119
Which type of hub boosts the signal strength?
A
Active hub
B
Token Ring hub
C
Passive hub
D
Brouter
Explanation
ACTIVE HUB
Active hubs boost and regenerate the signal strength. They do not correct errors but they do regenerate the signal.
Hubs per/say are not used with Token Ring. Token Ring uses MAUs.
Passive hubs do not boost or regenerate the signal, they simply pass it along.
Brouters don't relate to this question.
Q-120
A network is congested. Currently all the devices are connected through a hub as shown below. Which solution would best decrease congestion on the network?
A
Add a second hub
B
Replace the hub with a router
C
Replace the hub with a switch
D
Replace the hub with a repeater
Explanation
Replace the hub with a switch
A switch will make "routing" decisions based on the destination MAC address instead of broadcasting the signal to all ports like a hub.
A second hub or repeater would not reduce congestion. A router is overkill.
Q-121
An application is not working properly. Where would you look for patch files? (Choose two.)
A
Manufacturer's Web site
B
Manufacturer's technical support CD
C
Manufacturer's Technical support
D
README file
Explanation
Manufacturer's Web site
Manufacturer's technical support CD
Manufacturer's Technical support is typically used for getting help if you're having trouble getting their product to work properly they may refer you to their web site for patches, but don't expect them to download them for you.
Readme files usually are simple text or html files with the most update info that may not have been printed in the manual.
Q-122
You have installed a NIC in your workstation and have configured the IRQ and memory address, what do you do next? (Choose two.)
A
Run diagnostics
B
Install NIC software driver
C
Attach the network cable to the NIC
D
Nothing
Explanation
Install the NIC software driver
Attach the network cable to the NIC
Diagnostics programs are a troubleshooting measure and are not usually part of adapter card installation.
Q-123
What kind of hub has a limitation of thirty meters?
A
Passive
B
Active
C
Switch
D
Hybrid
Explanation
Passive
Passive hubs can be no more than 30 meters (100 feet) from an active hub
Passive hubs can pass the signal only from one port to the next; cannot regenerate the signal.
Passive hubs have no power supply; cannot be linked
Passive hubs require termination of unused ports
Q-124
Which of the following technologies uses fiber optic cabling? (Choose two.)
A
SONET
B
T1
C
E1
D
OC3
Explanation
SONET
OC3
This could be deducted just by remeberingwhat the letters in the anagrams stood for. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) and Optical Carrier 3 (OC).
Q-125
In a wireless network what handles the traffic between the wireless network cards and the physical network?
A
Access point
B
Receiver
C
Transmitter
D
Internet Service Provider (ISP)
Explanation
Access point
To implement wireless networking, you simply add a wireless access point to the physical network; it handles the traffic between the wireless network cards.
Q-126
You are troubleshooting a NIC on a Unix machine. You use the Ifconfig command to find the physical address of the card is 00:0:0C:63:84:30. How do you find the manufacturer of the card without opening the case?
A
Examine the first 12 digits.
B
Examine the first 8 digits.
C
Examine the first 16 digits.
D
Examine the first 32 digits.
Explanation
Examine the first 12 digits.
First, Ifconfig is the equivilent of Ipconfig on a Windows NT and 2000 machine. The first 24 bits/three fields (00:0:0C in this case, which means it is a Cisco NIC) identify the NIC manufacturer and are also known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI). Given a MAC address, you can enter the value at http://www.coffer.com/mac_find/ to identify the manufacturer. This can be a great help in troubleshooting known problems with certain cards. A few manufacturers numbers are below if you would like to scroll down.
00000C Cisco
00000E Fujitsu
00000F NeXT
000010 Sytek
00001D Cabletron
000020 DIAB (Data Intdustrier AB)
000022 Visual Technology
00002A TRW
000032 GPT Limited (reassigned from GEC Computers Ltd)
00005A S & Koch
00005E IANA
000065 Network General
00006B MIPS
000077 MIPS
00007A Ardent
000089 Cayman Systems Gatorbox
000093 Proteon
00009F Ameristar Technology
0000A2 Wellfleet
0000A3 Network Application Technology
0000A6 Network General (internal assignment, not for products)
0000A7 NCD X-terminals
0000A9 Network Systems
0000AA Xerox Xerox machines
0000B3 CIMLinc
0000B7 Dove Fastnet
0000BC Allen-Bradley
0000C0 Western Digital
0000C5 Farallon phone net card
0000C6 HP Intelligent Networks Operation (formerly Eon Systems)
0000C8 Altos
0000C9 Emulex Terminal Servers
0000D7 Dartmouth College (NED Router)
0000DD Gould
0000DE Unigraph
0000E2 Acer Counterpoint
0000EF Alantec
0000FD High Level Hardvare (Orion, UK)
000102 BBN BBN internal usage (not registered)
001700 Kabel
008064 Wyse Technology / Link Technologies
00802D Xylogics, Inc. Annex terminal servers
00808C Frontier Software Development
0080C2 IEEE 802.1 Committee
0080D3 Shiva
00AA00 Intel
00DD00 Ungermann-Bass
00DD01 Ungermann-Bass
020701 Racal InterLan
020406 BBN BBN internal usage (not registered)
026086 Satelcom MegaPac (UK)
02608C 3Com IBM PC; Imagen; Valid; Cisco
02CF1F CMC Masscomp; Silicon Graphics; Prime EXL
080002 3Com (Formerly Bridge)
080003 ACC (Advanced Computer Communications)
080005 Symbolics Symbolics LISP machines
080008 BBN
080009 Hewlett-Packard
08000A Nestar Systems
08000B Unisys
080011 Tektronix, Inc.
080014 Excelan BBN Butterfly, Masscomp, Silicon Graphics
080017 NSC
08001A Data General
08001B Data General
08001E Apollo
080020 Sun Sun machines
080022 NBI
080025 CDC
080026 Norsk Data (Nord)
080027 PCS Computer Systems GmbH
080028 TI Explorer
08002B DEC
08002E Metaphor
08002F Prime Computer Prime 50-Series LHC300
080036 Intergraph CAE stations
080037 Fujitsu-Xerox
080038 Bull
080039 Spider Systems
080041 DCA Digital Comm. Assoc.
080046 Sony
080047 Sequent
080049 Univation
08004C Encore
08004E BICC
080056 Stanford University
08005A IBM
080067 Comdesign
080068 Ridge
080069 Silicon Graphics
08006E Concurrent Masscomp
080075 DDE (Danish Data Elektronik A/S)
08007C Vitalink TransLAN III
080080 XIOS
080086 Imagen/QMS
080087 Xyplex terminal servers
080089 Kinetics AppleTalk-Ethernet interface
08008B Pyramid
08008D XyVision XyVision machines
080090 Retix Inc Bridges
800010 AT&T
AA0000 DEC obsolete
Q-127
A user calls your help desk. She is having problems connecting to the network after you have installed and tested a wireless NIC in her laptop. What two factors should you consider when troubleshooting?
A
The distance to the access point
B
Obstacles between the NIC and the access point
C
The NIC's IRQ
D
The number of users on the network segment
Explanation
Obstacles between the NIC and the access point
The distance to the access point
Problems with wireless networks can arise from interference or a signal attempting to pass through too many obstacles (walls, filing cabinets, floors, etc.). This can especially become a problem with laptops that users carry from one location to another. Most wireless NIC vendors include utilities with their cards that enable you to see the quality of the signal you're receiving.
Q-128
IRQ13 is used for what?
A
Math Coprocessor
B
PS/2 Mouse
C
Hard Drive - Primary
D
Hard Drive - Secondary
Explanation
MATH CO-PROCESSOR
Q-129
To be able to interrupt the CPU's activities what must a device use?
A
An IRQ
B
A password
C
The DMA controller
D
The parallel port
Explanation
An IRQ
Q-130
IRQ8 is used for what?
A
Real Time Clock
B
LPT1
C
Linked to IRQ2
D
LPT 2
Explanation
REAL TIME CLOCK
Q-131
IRQ14 is used for what?
A
Hard Drive - Primary
B
Hard Drive - Secondary
C
PS/2 Mouse
D
Math Coprocessor
Explanation
HARD DRIVE - PRIMARY
Q-132
IRQ1 is used for what?
A
Keyboard
B
System Timer
C
COM1
D
Real Time Clock
Explanation
KEYBOARD
Q-133
IRQ10 is used for what?
A
SCSI Primary
B
Math Coprocessor
C
PS2 Mouse
D
Hard Drive Primary
Explanation
SCSI PRIMARY
Q-134
IRQ15 is used for what?
A
Hard Drive - Secondary
B
SCSI Primary
C
Hard Drive - Primary
D
Math Coprocessor
Explanation
HARD DRIVE SECONDARY
Q-135
IRQ5 is used for what?
A
Unassigned, LPT2, Sound Card, NIC
B
LPT1
C
Floppy
D
System Clock
Explanation
UNASSIGNED, LPT2, SOUND CARD, NIC
Q-136
IRQ11 is used for what?
A
Unassigned or SCSI Secondary
B
Unassigned or SCSI Primary
C
PS2 Mouse
D
Math Coprocessor
Explanation
UNASSIGNED OR SCSI SECONDARY
Q-137
IRQ 7 is used for what?
A
LPT1
B
Floppy
C
Linked to IRQ2
D
LPT2
Explanation
LPT1
Q-138
IRQ6 is used for what?
A
Floppy Drive
B
LPT1
C
LPT2
D
Mouse
Explanation
Floppy Drive
Q-139
IRQ9 is used for what?
A
Linked to IRQ2
B
Real Time Clock
C
SCSI Primary
D
Math Coprocessor
Explanation
LINKED TO IRQ2
Q-140
IRQ2 is used for what?
A
Linked to IRQ9
B
COM1
C
COM2
D
Keyboard
Explanation
LINKED TO IRQ9
Q-141
IRQ 0 is used for what?
A
System clock, and cannot be used for other devices
B
Keyboard, and cannot be used by other devices
C
Floppy-disk drive
D
Is free, and can be used for any device
Explanation
System clock, and cannot be used for other devices
Q-142
IRQ3 is used for what?
A
COM2 and COM4
B
COM1 and COM3
C
Floppy Drive
D
LPT2
Explanation
COM2 and COM4
Q-143
IRQ4 is used for what?
A
COM1 and COM3
B
COM2 and COM4
C
Floppy Drive
D
LPT 2
Explanation
COM1 and COM3
Q-144
IRQ12 is used for what?
A
PS/2 Mouse
B
Math Coprocessor
C
Hard Drive - Primary
D
Hard Drive - Secondary
Explanation
PS/2 MOUSE
Q-145
NICs are usually assigned which Base I/O Port?
A
300h, 280h, or 310h
B
200h, 380,310
C
300h, 290h, 310h
D
200h, 210h,300h
Explanation
300H, 280H, or 310H
Q-146
You assign a network adapter to IRQ3. With which port it will conflict?
Which protocol suite is recognized on all platforms?
A
TCP/IP
B
IPX/SPX
C
FTP
D
DHCP
Explanation
TCP/IP
TCP/IP is recognized on practically all Network Operating Systems.
IPX/SPX is a popular Novell suite but is losing popularity to TCP/IP
FTP and DHCP are protocols but not protocol suites.
Q-148
What protocol do you use to connect a Windows NT Server to NetWare.
A
IP
B
IPX
C
NetBIOS
D
NetBEUI
Explanation
IPX
IPX is the Network layer protocol for Novell NetWare. Its counterpart in the TCP/IP suite is IP
Q-149
What protocol recovers from lost or corrupted packets during transmission?
A
TCP
B
IP
C
IPX
D
NetBIOS
Explanation
TCP
TCP is a transport layer protocol and the transport layer is responsible for successful transmission and reception of data. If data packets are lost, the transport layer initiates the request for the data to be resent. Therefore it is considered "reliable".
Q-150
What protocol use names as addresses?
A
IP
B
IPX
C
TCP
D
NetBIOS
Explanation
NetBIOS
NetBIOS uses fifteen character names for address resolution. There is a 16th character which is used by the system and may not be used as part of the name.
IP addresses consist of four octets such as (110.143.201.013)
Novell or IPX addresses are made up of the MAC address and the network number.
TCP is a transport layer protocol and is not routable.
Q-151
What is the primary network layer routing protocol used by AppleTalk?
A
DDP
B
UDP
C
PPP
D
CPU
Explanation
DDP
The Datagram Delivery Protocol (DDP) is the primary network layer routing protocol in the AppleTalk protocol suite that provides a best-effort connectionless Datagram service between AppleTalk sockets.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is the counterpart to DDP in the TCP/IP suite of protocols.
PPP (Point-to Point Protocol), is the Internet standard for transmitting network layer datagrams over serial point-to-point links.
Q-152
What are the four main media-access implementations for the AppleTalk protocol?
A
FDDITalk
B
TokenTalk
C
LocalTalk
D
EtherTalk
E
BadTalk
F
FastTalk
Explanation
EtherTalk
LocalTalk
TokenTalk
FDDITalk.
These data link layer implementations perform address translation and other functions that allow proprietary AppleTalk protocols to communicate over industry-standard interfaces, which include IEEE 802.3 (using EtherTalk), Token Ring/IEEE 802.5 (using TokenTalk), and FDDI (using FDDITalk). In addition, AppleTalk implements its own network interface, known as LocalTalk.
As with other popular protocol suites, such as TCP/IP and IPX, the AppleTalk architecture maintains media-access dependencies on such lower-layer protocols as Ethernet, Token Ring, and FDDI. Four main media-access implementations exist in the AppleTalk protocol suite: EtherTalk, LocalTalk, TokenTalk, and FDDITalk.
Q-153
What is the time synchronization protocol used for the Internet?
A
NTP
B
SMTP
C
NNTP
D
POP3
Explanation
NTP
The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is an Internet standard protocol. It enables client computers to maintain system time synchronization to the US Naval Observatory Master Clocks in Washington, DC and Colorado Springs, CO.
NTP, which runs on the client program, sends periodic time requests to one or more NTP servers.
Q-154
SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) supports both NetBEUI and TCP/IP.
A
True
B
False
Explanation
FALSE
SLIP is an older line protocol and supports TCP/IP only. It must be manually configured.
Q-155
How may NetBIOS packets be routable?
A
Encapsulate NetBIOS packets in TCP/IP frames.
B
When connected with NetBEUI
C
Never
D
When using a router
Explanation
Encapsulate NetBIOS packets in TCP/IP frames.
NetBIOS is a non routable protocol, along with NetBEUI. However NetBIOS packets may be encapsulated in a routable protocol like TCP/IP.
Q-156
Which protocol is NOT routable?
A
NetBEUI
B
Apple Talk
C
IP
D
IPX
Explanation
NetBEUI
NetBEUI is not routable, all the others are.
Q-157
Which provides a simple email service, is used for uploading mail from your client to the server and moves messages from one mail server to another?
A
SMTP
B
FTP
C
POP3
D
DHCP
Explanation
SMTP
SMTP (Simple Mail Transport Protocol) is for uploading mail from your client to the server, and moving messages from one mail server to another. Do not confuse this with POP3, which allows a client computer to retrieve electronic mail from a POP3 server.
POP3 is for downloading mail from the server and is typically used where the client is not always connected to the server. Phone line Internet connection services typically use POP3 to retrieve mail from the server.
IMAP is used for retrieving mail from the server when you are connected all the time. IMAP has more capability for selecting and downloading mail than POP3, but POP3 is more common for the typical Internet user.
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring specific network
DHCP(Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used for automatically configuring TCP/IP settings on large networks.
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for copying files between computers.
Q-158
With Windows 9.x, what protocol makes the fastest connection on a Peer-to-Peer Network?
A
NWLink IPX
B
TCP/IP
C
AppleTalk
D
DLC
Explanation
NWLink IPX
Of the protocols suites listed above, NWLink IPX is the fastest.
Q-159
Which of the following TCP/IP protocols are connection oriented? (Choose two.)
A
TFTP
B
NetBEUI
C
FTP
D
HTTP
Explanation
FTP
HTTP
FTP is connection oriented.
HTTP is connection oriented.
TFTP is not connection oriented.
NetBEUI is NOT considered by CompTIA to be connection-oriented
Whether HTTP is or is not connection oriented is controversial. Many people miss this question!
The correct answer, (from CompTIA's point of view) is HTTP and FTP are connection-oriented. Technically, the "connection" takes place at the Transport layer, and both of these are Application layer protocols. However, they both use TCP to transport the data and TCP is the connection-oriented transport protocol of the TCP/IP suite. For all practical purposes, HTTP and FTP operate through a reliable (TCP) connection. This is why CompTIA considers them connection-oriented.
TFTP, (Trivial File Transport Protocol), uses UDP, (User Datagram Protocol) as a transport mechanism. UDP is the connection-less transport protocol of the TCP/IP suite and is used for situations where speed is more important than accurate data transfer. An example would be audio and video files that require a lot of bandwidth. Using a connection-oriented transport mechanism would slow these files down so much, it would be unacceptable. Here again, TFTP is an Application layer protocol, but since it uses UDP, the transfer of data is unreliable, (connection-less).
Q-160
Which protocol is used for dynamic route discovery with TCP/IP?
A
RIP
B
DNS
C
WINS
D
DHCP
Explanation
RIP
RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is a distance vector protocol which counts the number of hops a path requires, and determines the best route for packets to take.
DNS and WINS are used for name resolution.
DHCP is used for Dynamic IP addressing
Q-161
What can you use for "LAN to LAN communication" when you have multiple LANs? (Choose three.)
A
TCP/IP
B
IPX
C
AppleTalk
D
NetBEUI
Explanation
TCP/IP, IPX, AppleTalk
To communicate among different LANs, you need routable protocols. TCP/IP, IPX, AppleTalk are routable, while NetBEUI is not.
Q-162
Which two protocols use a connection oriented transport?
A
FTP
B
HTTP
C
TFTP
D
NetBEUI
Explanation
FTP, HTTP
FTP uses TCP as a transport layer mechanism
HTTP uses TCP as a transport layer mechanism
TFTP uses UDP as a transport layer mechanism
CompTIA does not consider NetBEUI to be connection-oriented
TCP is the connection-oriented transport protocol of the TCP/IP suite
UDP in the connection-less transport protocol of the TCP/IP suite
Q-163
What do UNIX servers use to send email between themselves?
A
SMTP
B
POP3
C
UDP
D
Telnet
Explanation
SMTP
And it is not just UNIX servers which use SMTP to send email.
POP3 is used by clients for downloading email from servers. The other two are not mail protocols.
Q-164
Novell supports which protocols? (Choose all that apply.)
A
TCP/IP
B
IPX
C
PPP
D
AppleTalk
Explanation
TCP/IP, IPX, PPP, AppleTalk
IPX/SPX were the original Novell NetWare protocols. In addition, Novell also supports TCP/IP, PPP (Point to Point Protocol), and AppleTalk. Since the release of NetWare 5 TCP/IP is the Novell protocol of choice.
Q-165
Which protocols are routable? (Choose two.)
A
IP
B
IPX
C
TCP
D
NetBIOS
Explanation
IP
IPX
This is a bit tricky. IP and IPX are both routable. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) by itself is not routable. It depends on IP for routing. Remember that routing is a function which resides at the network layer of the OSI model. TCP resides at the transport layer.
NetBIOS is not routable.
Q-166
Which protocol suite is PPTP associated with?
A
TCP/IP
B
IPX/SPX
C
AppleTalk
D
SNA
Explanation
TCP/IP
PPTP involves encapsulating data within IP packets that can transport information that wouldn't otherwise conform to Internet addressing standards. Using PPTP, data from LANs which use TCP/IP, IPX. NetBEUI, AppleTalk, or other protocols, can be tunneled through IP packets, thus establishing a Virtual Private network through existing Internet connections.
Q-167
What protocol would you use to establish a secure and encrypted communication, (a Virtual Private Network), between two locations over the Internet?
A
PPTP
B
PPP
C
UDP
D
SLIP
Explanation
PPTP
PPTP Point to Point Tunneling Protocol a new line protocol used for VPNs (Virtual Private Network)
PPP: Point to Point Protocol is a line protocol used for remote communications.
SLIP: Serial Line Internet Protocol is an older TCP/IP only line protocol.
UDP: Used Datagram Protocol is a fast and efficient connectionless protocol .
Q-168
What TCP/IP protocol is used to download email from a server?
A
POP3
B
SMTP
C
ICMP
D
SNMP
Explanation
POP3
POP3 is for downloading email from a server.
SMTP is used for uploading to the server and to transfer e-mail between Internet servers.
Q-169
Clients can request IP addresses with a PPP connection.
A
True
B
False
Explanation
True
Don't read anything into this question. A dial-up connection uses PPP. The client requests (with a DHCPREQUEST message from client to DHCP server indicating that the client would
like to receive the offered IP address) an IP address from the remote server via PPP.
Q-170
Which of the following protocols can be used to verify the successful use of the FTP utility?
A
TCP
B
HTTP
C
Netstat
D
ARP
E
IP
F
ICMP
Explanation
TCP
TCP is the connection-oriented Transport layer protocol of the TCP/IP suite. It is the Transport layer that provides error checking and verifies successful transmission of data. Therefore TCP is the answer.
Q-171
Which protocols can you use to connect your company's three LANs? (Choose three.)
A
TCP/IP
B
PPP
C
POP3
D
IPX
E
AppleTalk
F
NetBEUI
Explanation
TCP/IP
IPX
AppleTalk
You need routable protocols for this. TCP/IP, IPX, and AppleTalk are the ones listed that are routable.
PPP is a serial line protocol and is not routable.
POP3 is a protocol for downloading e-mail from server to client and is not routable.
NetBEUI is not routable
Q-172
Which use UDP as their transport protocol? (Choose two.)
A
TFTP
B
DNS
C
FTP
D
SMTP
Explanation
TFTP
DNS
TFTP(Trivial File Transfer Protocol) and DNS(Domain Name System) use UDP as the Transport layer protocol.
Note: DNS may also use TCP, but under normal circumstance DNS uses UDP. If a different protocol is specified, the client contacts the server using that protocol. If no protocol is specified, the client first tries UDP.
Q-173
Which of the following protocols are in TCP/IP suite? (Choose four.)
A
SMTP
B
DHCP
C
HTTP
D
UDP
E
NetBEUI
F
SAP
Explanation
SMTP, DHCP, HTTP, UDP
SMTP Simple Mail Transport Protocol is used for sending email around the Internet.
DHCP -Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically assign IP addresses for network devices/Hosts
HTTP Hyper Text Transfer Protocol is a TCP/IP protocol used for transferring Web pages around the Internet.
UDP User Datagram protocol is a TCP/IP connectionless protocol
NetBEUI is a non routable Microsoft protocol.
SAP is a Novell protocol used in name resolution.
Q-174
PPTP uses which transport protocol?
A
TCP/IP
B
UDP
C
IPX
D
AppleTalk
Explanation
TCP/IP
PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol) requires TCP/IP and PPP before it can work.
With PPTP, you can securely transmit Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) packets over a TCP/IP network.
Q-175
Which of the following protocols is not routable?
A
NetBEUI
B
IP
C
IPX
D
DECnet
Explanation
NetBEUI
NetBEUI is an extremely fast protocol for LANs but lack addressing capability to be routable. Routing of NetBEUI packets must be handled by other protocols.
IP: Internet Protocol is the routable protocol of the TCP/IP suite.
IPX: Internet Packet Exchange is part of Novel's IPX/SPX suite and is routable.
DECnet is routable.
Q-176
Which PPP authentication method sends the name and password in simple text over a serial line connection?
A
PAP
B
CHAP
C
SLIP
D
IP
Explanation
PAP
PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) sends the name and password in simple text.
CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) uses encryption to protect the name and password.
Q-177
Which protocols would allow Windows 2000 machines to communicate? (Choose all that apply.)
A
LDP
B
NetBEUI
C
TCP/IP
D
IPX/SPX
Explanation
NetBEUI
TCP/IP
IPX/SPX
With Windows NT 3.51, 4.0 and Windows 2000, TCP/IP became the default choice during installation, although the administrator can still choose NetBEUI or even an IPX-compatible protocol (NWLink), if necessary.
Q-178
What is the proprietary network operating system of Macintosh computers?
A
AppleTalk
B
TCP/IP
C
IPX/SPX
D
OSPF
Explanation
AppleTalk
AppleTalk is the default network operating system of Macintosh computers included with every Mac OS. Many other operating systems can also communicate via AppleTalk, but it is not the default protocol for these systems.
The Apple File Protocol (AFP) is used to provide the sharing capabilities across the network.
Q-179
Which protocol has the least overhead?
A
NetBEUI
B
TCP/IP
C
AppleTalk
D
IPX/SPX
Explanation
NetBEUI
NetBEUI (NetBIOS Enhanced User Interface) is a proprietary Microsoft protocol. It has virtually no overhead, and was used in all of Microsoft's early networking products such as Windows for Workgroups, LAN Manager, etc.
Interestingly, OS/2 (no it is not dead!) used NetBEUI as its native protocol.
Q-180
Which two application protocols does Network Attached Storage (NAS) use?
A
NFS
B
HDLC
C
SMB
D
ATM
Explanation
NFS
SMB
With protocols like TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol), IPX, SMB (Server Message Block), NFS (Network File System), HTTP (Hyper Text Transport Protocol) network attached storage devices can communicate with the LAN.
The key here is "network attached" not backbone protocols for a WAN like Frame Relay or ATM. HDLC is a point-to-point protocol used on leased lines.
Q-181
You have connected an Apple workstation to a Windows NT4 Server. The workstation is unable to connect to the server but it can connect to the internet.
A
The server not running IPX/SPX.
B
The server not running AppleTalk.
C
The server is not running Services for Macintosh.
D
The workstation not running NetBEUI.
Explanation
Server not running Services for Macintosh.
The second best choice would be "The server not running AppleTalk". However, when you set up Services for Macintosh on a computer running Windows NT Server, the AppleTalk Protocol, File Server for Macintosh and the Print Server for Macintosh are all automatically enabled.
Q-182
What layer of the OSI model does a bridge operate in?
A
Data Link
B
Transport
C
Physical
D
Network
Explanation
Data Link
Bridges operate in the Data Link layer and are used to segment the LAN. While Bridges create multiple "collision" domains, all bridged segments are still on the same 'broadcast" domain. The reason being that they pass broadcast packets to other connected domains.
Bridges do NOT help to reduce broadcast storms.
Q-183
A router operates on the network layer and is capable of selecting multiple data paths.
A
True
B
False
Explanation
True
Routers are intelligent devices operating at the Network layer. Routers evaluate the destination address of the packet and forward it to the next node along the way to its destination.
Q-184
What layer of the OSI model ensures packets are delivered error free, in sequence and without lost or missing packets?
A
Transport
B
Network
C
Data Link
D
Session
Explanation
Transport
The Transport layer provides for reliable and properly sequenced transfer of data. A key word here is "sequenced". The Transport layer can re-sequence out of order packets.
The Network layer is responsible for routing the data packets to their correct destination by the best available path. Routers operate at the Network layer,
The Data Link layer is responsible for packaging data into frames and providing an error free "Link" between computers. Bridges operate at the data Link layer.
The Session layer handles the opening, and closing of a session between computers.
Q-185
Which of the following operate at the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose all that apply.)
A
Bridge
B
Brouter
C
Switch
D
Router
Explanation
Bridge
Brouter
Switch
Brouters, being a hybrid between bridges and routers, operate at both the network and data link level.
Q-186
How many layers are in the TCP/IP protocol stack?
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
Explanation
4
TCP/IP, has four layers of protocols. Each layer works independently of the other layers and passes the data to either the layer above it or the layer below it.
1. NETWORK ACCESS LAYER: deals with the physical network. It has a protocol for each physical network standard. Functions of this level include encapsulating IP Datagrams into the frames.
2. INTERNET LAYER: defines the Internet addressing scheme and learning whether or not to pass it up or pass it on. This is where IP resides. It is connectionless and routable.
3. HOST-TO-HOST TRANSPORT LAYER: provides reliable Connection-oriented data delivery and error checking. This is where TCP resides.
4. APPLICATION LAYER: contains application protocols such as TELNET, FTP, HTTP and SMTP.
Q-187
At which layer of the OSI model does the router operate?
A
Network
B
Data Link
C
Transport
D
Application
Explanation
Network
Remember that routing is done at the network layer. That is why we associate IP and IPX at this layer. And routers make decisions based on logical network addresses.
Q-188
Which operates at both the Application and Transport layers?
A
Brouter
B
Router
C
Switch
D
Gateway
Explanation
Gateway
Gateways are used to connect networks that have different protocols. For instance, if your LAN uses only NetBEUI, you would need a gateway in order to communicate over the Internet, which uses TCP/IP.
Since gateways effectively "translate" protocols, they work at all layers of the OSI model. However, for the purposes of the Network+ exam, remember they work at the upper layers, (Transport layer and above).
Q-189
Which one of the following OSI layers determines which route data packets should take by evaluating network conditions and priority of service?
A
Network layer
B
Transport layer
C
Data Link layer
D
Session layer
Explanation
NETWORK
The Network layer is responsible for routing the data packets to their correct destination by the best available path. Routers operate at the Network layer,
The Transport layer provides for reliable and properly sequenced transfer of data.
The Data Link layer is responsible for packaging data into frames and providing an error free "Link" between computers. Bridges operate at the data Link layer.
The Session layer handles the opening, and closing of a session between computers.
Q-190
Which device operates on both the Network and the Data Link Layer of the OSI model?
A
Brouter
B
Router
C
Bridge
D
Hub
Explanation
Brouter
Brouters operate at both the Data Link and Network layers.
Brouters are an excellent solution in situations where both routable and nonroutable protocols are used together. Like a Bridge, Brouters pass nonroutable protocols such as NetBEUI and like a Router, they can route routable protocols such as TCP/IP to the correct destination.
Q-191
E-mail, FTP services, and Telnet work at which OSI layer?
A
Application
B
Session
C
Presentation
D
Network
Explanation
Application
E-mail, FTP services, and Telnet all operate at the Application layer
Q-192
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for placing the signal on the cable?
A
Physical
B
Data Link
C
Transport
D
Network
Explanation
Physical
The cable always refers to the Physical layer.
Q-193
On what OSI layer do computers "talk" to each other?
A
Session
B
Data link
C
Network
D
Physical
E
Transport
F
Presentation
Explanation
Session
The Session layer is responsible for setting up a communication "session" between two computers.
Q-194
Which of the following devices works at the Application layer of the OSI model ?
A
Gateway
B
Bridge
C
Repeater
D
Brouter
Explanation
Gateway
A Gateway works at the Application layer and other upper layers of the OSI model.
A Bridge operates at the Data Link layer.
A Repeater operates at the Physical layer.
A Brouter operates at both the Network and Data Link layers of the OSI model.
Q-195
UDP resides at which layer of the OSI?
A
Transport
B
Session
C
Datalink
D
Network
Explanation
Transport
Transport layers include TCP and UDP.
UDP is the connection-less Transport layer protocol.
Q-196
Select two protocols that reside at the Transport layer of the OSI model.
Which relates to the Logical Link Control of the Data Link layer?
A
802.2
B
802.1
C
803.3
D
802.4
Explanation
802.2
IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 TOKEN BUS
802.5 TOKEN RING
802.6 METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION
Q-198
What IEEE specification does CSMA/CD map to?
A
802.3
B
802.2
C
802.4
D
802.6
Explanation
802.3
IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 TOKEN BUS
802.5 TOKEN RING
802.6 METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION
Q-199
Which IEEE 802 specification specifies a logical ring and a physical star topology with a token passing media access method?
A
802.5
B
802.1
C
802.3
D
802.2
Explanation
802.5 (Token Ring)
IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 TOKEN BUS
802.5 TOKEN RING
802.6 METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION
Q-200
Which IEEE Standard uses Token-Passing in a Bus Topology?
A
802.4
B
802.5
C
802.1
D
802.3
Explanation
802.4 (Token Bus)
Token Bus is a networking protocol which regulates access to a bus topology network as though it were a token ring. Nodes can be configured to pass the token in any order, regardless of their physical position on the bus.
802.5 = Token Ring
802.3 = CSMA/CD (Ethernet)
802.1 = Internetworking and Management
Q-201
How many devices can communicate simultaneously within a Token-ring LAN?
A
One
B
One for each MAU on the LAN
C
As many devices as the administrator defines within the NOS
D
Between 1 and 5 if the ring speed is 16 Mbps
Explanation
One
There is only one token on a Token Ring LAN and no computer can communicate without it. Therefore only one computer may communicate at a time, even if there were multiple MAUs.
Q-202
On which network architecture is CSMA/CD used?
A
Ethernet (802.3)
B
ARCNet
C
AppleTalk
D
Token Ring (802.4)
Explanation
ETHERNET
Ethernet uses CSMA/CD as its method of line access. That is why we say that it maps to IEEE specification 803.2, which describes CSMA/CD.
Q-203
The IEEE standard that describes integrated voice and data networks is called?
A
802.9
B
802.10
C
802.11
D
802.12
Explanation
802.9
IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 TOKEN BUS
802.5 TOKEN RING
802.6 METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION
Q-204
What are the most commonly used network technologies in use today? (Choose three.)
A
802.2
B
802.5
C
802.4
D
802.3
Explanation
802.2, 802.3, 802.5
IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 TOKEN BUS
802.5 TOKEN RING
802.6 METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION
Q-205
What is the token in a Token Ring network generated by?
A
The active monitor
B
The Token
C
The MAU
D
The host
Explanation
The active monitor
Q-206
What IEEE 802 standard would map to this network?
A
802.5
B
802.3
C
802.2
D
802.12
Explanation
802.5
The Ring In and Ring Out ports, along with the double wires going to each workstation indicate this is a Token Ring network, which is the 802.5 IEEE standard.
802.3 = CSMA/CD (Ethernet)
802.2 = Logical Link Control
802.12 = 100 VG AnyLAN
Q-207
What IEEE specification is used to describe 100VG - ANY LAN?
A
802.12
B
802.3
C
802.4
D
802.5
Explanation
802.12
100VG AnyLAN is based on the IEEE 802.12 standard for transmitting 802.3 Ethernet and 802.5 Token Ring frame information at 100 megabits per second. Because of the success of Fast Ethernet this technology has a rough time in the marketplace. Arguably, this promising technology is, as of this writing, dead.
Although Fast Ethernet is a 100 Mb technology it is described in an extension to the 802.3 specification called 802.3u.
Q-208
Which network architecture maps to IEEE 802.5?
A
Token Ring
B
Token bus
C
Ethernet
D
Voice data transmissions
Explanation
Token Ring
IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 TOKEN BUS
802.5 TOKEN RING
802.6 METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION
Q-209
How many broadcast domains are in the picture below?
A
Four
B
One
C
Five
D
None
Explanation
Four
Switches pass broadcasts to all ports but a virtual LAN (VLAN) is a broadcast domain created by one or more switches. The VLAN is created via configuration in the switch. With VLANs, a single switch can assign some ports in one broadcast domain, and other ports in another broadcast domain. In this diagram there are four VLANs, therefore there are four broadcast domains.
Q-210
Which two benefits does starting Samba on a UNIX/Linux server provide?
A
Web access
B
Telnet access
C
File server access
D
Print server access
Explanation
File server access
Print server access
File server access and print server access are correct. Samba is a suite of Unix applications that speak the SMB (Server Message Block) protocol. Many operating systems, including Windows and OS/2, use SMB to perform client-server networking. By supporting this protocol, Samba allows Unix servers to get in on the action, communicating with the same networking protocol as Microsoft Windows products.
Q-211
Name two applications that are connection oriented.
A
FTP
B
TELNET
C
PING
D
SNMP
Explanation
FTP
Telnet
FTP and Telnet both use TCP as a Transport layer mechanism. This makes them connection-oriented.
PING uses ICMP, which operates under IP, which is not connection-oriented.
SNMP uses UDP which means it is not connection-oriented.
Q-212
Which TCP/IP protocol uses a logical address for a host?
A
IP
B
TCP
C
IPX
D
SNMP
Explanation
IP
IP (Internet Protocol) uses the IP address to identify the Host. It is termed a "logical address" because it is defined with software.
IPX (Internet Packet Exchange) is the only other choice that applies, but instead of a logical address, IPX uses the NIC card's hardware, or MAC address preceded by the network name.
Q-213
On a network that uses the TCP/IP protocol suite, each device that has a logical IP address is known as a _________?
A
Host
B
Server
C
Client
D
Peer
Explanation
HOST
This may seem a little odd since the term "Host" may also refer to a mainframe computer. For the purposes of the Network+ exam, Host is the correct answer.
Q-214
What type of transport protocol is UDP?
A
Connectionless
B
Connection oriented
C
Reliable
D
IPX/SPX
Explanation
Connectionless
User Datagram Protocol is a fast, efficient connectionless and unreliable protocol.
Q-215
Which PPP authentication method provides password encryption over a serial line connection?
A
CHAP
B
PAP
C
Neither
D
Both
Explanation
CHAP
CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) uses encryption to protect the name and password, while PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) sends the name and password in plain text.
Q-216
PPP supports authentication. (PAP and CHAP)
A
True
B
False
Explanation
True
PAP (Protocol Password Authentication) and CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) are used by PPP (Point to Point Protocol)for authentication methods.
Q-217
You are required to set up a link between your field office and headquarters.
Required result: Connect the two locations for file sharing over Internet.
Optional results: Provide a secure connection.
Optional result two: Provide a permanent connection.
Proposed solution: Enable PPTP on the headquarters web server, use an ISP from the field office to connect to the Internet and use PPTP to connect to headquarters. Which results have you achieved?
A
Meets required result only.
B
Meets required result and one optional result.
C
Meets required result and both optional results.
D
Does not meet the required result.
Explanation
Meets required result and one optional result.
PPTP is used to provide a Virtual Private Network (VPN) through an Internet connection, using an existing PPP session. The data passing through a PPTP session is encrypted to provide a secure transfer of data. The PPTP session only lasts as long as the PPP session through which it is tunneled. This means it is not permanent.
Q-218
For ISDN how many 64 Kbps channels are used?
A
2
B
12
C
64
D
128
Explanation
2
ISDN uses two 64 Kbps circuit switched channels for a 128 Kbps connection. There is a third 16 Kbps channel for administration.
Q-219
What is the advantage of ISDN over PSTN?
A
ISDN is faster
B
ISDN is cheaper
C
PSTN is faster
D
They are the same
Explanation
ISDN is faster
ISDN is faster with bandwidths from 128 Kbps (BRI) to 1.544 Mbps (PRI)
PSTN has a max bandwidth of 56 Kbps but is less expensive that ISDN
Q-220
What is the term for the technology connecting the users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium, such as a single DSL line or cable modem such as in the diagram below?
A
PPPoE
B
PPP
C
SLIP
D
OSPF
Explanation
PPPoE
PPP, which was designed for serial communications such as a dial-up connection, has been adapted to Ethernet, and is appropriately called PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE). So why one would want to use PPP over Ethernet anyway? You will have to scroll down to see the explanation.
If we were to compare TCP/IP traffic to street traffic, the TCP/IP protocol would be comparable to city streets. Streets can serve many access points. It is easy to get on and off of a street. Additional access points can be added with little disruption. Many cars are use each street. PPP, on the other hand, is a railway. Travel is between two well defined points. You can't get on and off anywhere. It is easy to count and monitor passengers. You need a ticket to board (authentication).
To keep this metaphor going, PPPoE is like a streetcar. Without disturbing street traffic, a streetcar bring the advantages of railways.
PPP over Ethernet brings this functionality to ISPs that do not use serial links to connect their users. Serial ISPs already use PPP over modem communications. DSL and cable providers on the other hand use Ethernet, not serial communications. Because of this, many require the added functionality of PPP over Ethernet, which allows them to secure communications through the use of user logins and have the ability to measure the volume of traffic each user generates.
Q-221
What must you consider before plugging a modem into a telephone jack?
A
Verify that the wall jack is within 15 feet of the modem.
B
Verify that the wall jack supports dual lines if a telephone will also be used.
C
Verify that the wall connection for the modem line is analog.
D
Verify that the cable supports full duplex transmissions.
Explanation
Verify that the wall connection for the modem line is analog.
A problem for traveling notebook users is that most businesses and hotels utilize digital phone systems that carry additional current that will damage your modem's circuitry. In fact, digital phone lines can supply in excess of 500mA of current, which is enough to destroy a modem.
Q-222
What provides data redundancy if both the disk and the controller fail?
A
RAID 1 (Disk duplexing)
B
RAID 0 (Disk stripping)
C
RAID 1 (Disk mirroring)
D
RAID 5 (Disk stripping with parity)
Explanation
RAID 1 (DISK DUPLEXING)
Disk Duplexing is similar to Disk Mirroring except it employs an additional hard drive controller. This provides protection for both the drive and controller.
Disk Striping only speeds up data access, no data redundancy is provided.
Disk striping with parity uses a minimum of three disks and a RAID controller.
Q-223
Which RAID level is "Mirroring"?
A
Level One
B
Level Two
C
Level Zero
D
Level Five
Explanation
LEVEL ONE
Both Mirroring and Duplexing are RAID Level One
Q-224
What type of network storage option does the diagram below represent?
A
SANs
B
NAS
C
WAN
D
SCSI
Explanation
NAS
In a typical Network Attached Storage (NAS) setup, a RAID hard drive server (a server with many redundant hard drives that mirror each other for redundancy) can be used as backup and storage for one or more servers on the network. Another typical NAS application is backing up a big database overnight, either across the data center or to a remote mirror site.
Storage Area Networks (SANs) also may have remote components but there's a key difference between NAS and SANs: SANs always have their own, separate infrastructure, including switches, routers and/or hubs. With NAS, everything runs over the network, which includes any WAN connections.
Q-225
Disk mirroring requires a minimum of how many hard drives and hard disk controllers?
A
2 hard drives, 1 hard disk controller
B
2 hard drives, 2 hard disk controllers
C
3 hard drives, 1 SCSI disk controller
D
Disk Mirroring is software and works on most any computer
Explanation
2 hard drives, 1 hard disk controller
Q-226
Windows NT 4 Server can be configured for what categories of RAID?
A
0, 1, 5
B
1, 2, 5
C
1, 3, 5
D
0, 1, 3
Explanation
0, 1, 5
The three levels of RAID that are universally supported by NT Server, NetWare or UNIX are RAID 0, RAID 1, RAID 5.
RAID 2, 3, and 4 may be available but are not widely supported.
Q-227
RAID 5 requires at least ___ disk drives?
A
3
B
2
C
4
D
5
Explanation
3
RAID 5 requires a minimum of 3 drives. If one drive fails the data that was stored on that disk can be reassembled from the parity information on the other two drives.
Q-228
Which RAID category is disk duplexing?
A
Level One
B
Level Two
C
Level Zero
D
Level Five
Explanation
LEVEL ONE
Both Mirroring and Duplexing are RAID Level One
Q-229
Which RAID uses three or more disk drives with the data striped across all drives in the array?
A
RAID 5
B
RAID 10
C
RAID 1
D
RAID 3
Explanation
RAID 5
The three commonly used RAID levels are 0, 1 and 5.
RAID level 0 is a simple form of striping that enhances disk access speed but provides no fault tolerance
RAID level 1 - Mirroring uses two drives and one controller
RAID level 1 - Duplexing uses two hard drives and two controllers
RAID level 5 - Striping with parity and requires at least 3 disk drives and is the most popular.
Q-230
Which RAID solution is implemented below?
A
RAID 1 Mirror
B
RAID 1 Duplex
C
RAID 5
D
RAID 0
Explanation
RAID 1 Mirror
As you can see from the diagram, the controller is a possible point of failure. If the controller is down data from the RAID volumes or disks will not be accessible until the controller is repaired or replaced.
Q-231
Which RAID solution is implemented below?
A
RAID 1 Duplex
B
RAID 1 Mirror
C
RAID 5
D
RAID 0
Explanation
RAID 1 Duplex
Duplexing is like mirroring in that exactly the same data is stored in two different locations. Unlike mirroring duplexing uses two controllers. This effectively eliminates the RAD controller as the single point of failure.
Q-232
A technician has been asked to install a RAID 5 disk array on a customer's server. What is the minimum number of hard drives needed to implement RAID 5?
A
Two hard drives
B
Three hard drives
C
Four hard drives
D
Five hard drives
Explanation
Three hard drives
RAID 5, which uses a striping with distributed parity technique, requires a minimum of three hard drives. Any less, and the data and parity information would not be properly distributed to allow recovery if one of the drives fails. Having more drives than the minimum increases both your disk capacity and your ability to recover from a failed drive.
Q-233
You are required to make sure the company's data is safe in the event of a hardware failure. The optional requirements are that this data should be safe even in the event of fire, flood, etc. and safe from theft or vandalism.Your supervisor tells you to make a weekly full backup of data with daily differential backups. You are to store the tapes on-site in a locked closet that has a heavy steel door. What does this achieve?
A
Attains required result and only one optional result.
B
Attains required result only.
C
Attains required result and both optional results.
D
Does not attain required result.
Explanation
Attains required result and only one optional result.
The backup plan will protect the data from hardware failure. The closet will protect from theft and vandalism. However there is nothing to protect from fire or flood.
Q-234
Which type of network security is most restrictive?
A
User level
B
Share level
C
Peer to peer
D
Windows 95
Explanation
User level
In user level security the user must be authenticated before gaining access to a resource (a share) such as a file, directory or printer. This is like a safety deposit box in a bank. You must prove your identity and then you and only you can access the resource.
In share level security the resource is given an access password (or token) and anyone who has the password (or token) can access the resource. This is like a parking ramp that lets anyone in that has a valid magnetic swipe card.
Q-235
For the best security policy, how often should you change passwords?
A
Change them on a regular basis
B
Change them randomly
C
Only change them when they have been discovered
D
Never change the password
Explanation
Change them on a regular basis
Q-236
A user named "User One" needs a password. Which would be the most restrictive?
A
User$1
B
Uone
C
UserO
D
OneUser
Explanation
User$1
It is best to mix upper and lower case characters and include symbols to make passwords harder to guess.
Q-237
The server has lots of open connections but is not completing them.
You run "netstat -n -p TCP" and get the results as shown in the exhibit. What is happening?
A
SNY attack
B
Spoof
C
Ping of Death
D
Ping Attack
Explanation
SNY attack
SYN attack is a denial of service attack where at least one Internet port is blocked from legitimate access. This id done by sending enough packets to targeted ports to completely block or severely curtail access to these ports. These packets are legal packets in compliance with TCP/IP protocols, except that they carry faked source addresses.
Packet filtering technology used in firewalls is one way to protect against syn attacks.
Q-238
Which two are digital signature technology?
A
asymmetric encryption
B
hashing
C
indexing
D
tunneling
Explanation
asymmetric encryption
hashing
There are two basic types of digital technology:
The first is called "asymmetric encryption", which uses public and private keys to encrypt and later return the digital document to its original form. This makes unauthorized people unable to read the contents of the message.
The other uses a "hash function" and may be referred to as simply "hashing". This involves creating a unique numerical value based on the contents of the message that would change significantly if the contents of the message are changed. This technology ensures that the message has not been changed in any way and that the sender is authentic.
Q-239
Which two are used with digital signature? (Choose two.)
A
EncryptAPI
B
Certificate Authority
C
Asymmetric Algorithm
D
Complete Data encryption
Explanation
Certificate Authority, Asymmetric Algorithm
There are a number of steps involved in creating Digital signatures.
1.) The sender creates a unique hash, or a "fingerprint of the document with software which uses an algorithm designed for that purpose. This "hash" is a fairly short digital value, maybe 32 bytes in size, but it is unique to that document. The important thing is that even a slight change in the original document will produce a different hash value when processed by the same algorithm.
2) This hash is encrypted with asymmetric encryption, using the sender's private key. This is where the "asymmetric algorithm" comes into play. Asymmetric encryption means that both a public and private key are required. (The private and public keys are issued by Certificate Authorities). The encrypted hash forms the actual "digital signature" for the message.
3) The sender transmits both the digital signature and the original message to the recipient. (The message, itself can also be encrypted but this isn't necessary for the message to be considered signed).
4) The recipient uses the sender's public key to decrypt the digital signature into the original hash. Now the recipient can verify that the message has not been altered, if gets the exact same hash when he processes it with software using the same algorithm as the sender.
For this question, Certificate Authority and asymmetric algorithm are the two answers that relate to digital signatures.
I don't know what EncryptAPI is (Sounds like it stands for Encryption Application Programming Interface)
Complete Data Encryption is not a necessary part of a digital signature.
Q-240
You want to set up your notebook PC to dial into a host using PPP. Which of the following do you need to supply? (Choose three.)
A
Host phone number
B
Username
C
Password
D
IP address
Explanation
Host phone number
Username
Password
The Host phone number, Username and password would be needed.
The NetBIOS name would not be needed nor an IP address, since PPP can configure itself using DHCP.
Q-241
What can you implement to increase the security on your network server with the least amount of effort?
A
Resource level security
B
Token
C
Bridge
D
User level security
Explanation
User level security
Resource level security is OK for small peer to peer networks, but it becomes an administrative headache for server based networks.In user level security the user must be authenticated before gaining access to a resource (a share) such as a file, directory or printer. This is like a safty deposit box in a bank. You must prove your identity and then you and only you can access the resource.
In share level security the resource is given an access password (or token) and anyone who has the password (or token) can access the resource. This is like a parking ramp that lets anyone in that has a valid magnetic swipe card.
Q-242
Your business is open weekdays from 9am to 5pm. Your boss does not want the network backups to interfere with the network at all during business hours. You have a tape drive that can backup data at a rate of 2.1 GB/hour. Doing a full backup, you have 40 GB of data to backup. On which days can you perform a normal (full) backup. (Choose two.)
A
Sunday
B
Monday
C
Tuesday
D
Friday
Explanation
Friday, Sunday
If you divide the size of the data to be backed up by 2.1 gigs per hour, you will need 19 hours to do the job. During weekdays, you only have sixteen hours to do the back up. Therefore, only weekend days will work. However, you can start the backup on Friday after 5:00 p.m.. Even though it will have to go past midnight, it will finish without interfering with network activities during normal business hours.
Q-243
Which three would cause the archive attribute to change?
A
Differential backup
B
Incremental backup
C
Full backup
D
User file modification
Explanation
Full, Incremental and User file modification
Full backup resets the archive bit to indicate the file is backed up
Incremental backup also resets the archive bit.
When users modify and save a file, the archive bit will be set. This indicates it has not been backed up.
Differential backups do not reset the archive bit.
Q-244
Which two tape back up schemes should you choose if you want to be able to restore all your data with a maximum of only two tapes? (Choose two.)
A
Full
B
Differential
C
Copy
D
Incremental
Explanation
Full
Differential
When using differential backups you need two tapes to restore a server. The last full backup and the last differential backup.
Incremental backups require up to seven tapes for a full restore. One for each backup since the full backup and the full backup.
Q-245
Which backup methods clear the archive attribute?
A
Full
B
Incremental
C
Differential
D
Daily
Explanation
Full
Incremental
Q-246
What are two dangers to network security? (Choose two.)
A
Event auditing
B
Rogue employees
C
Dial-in connections
D
Disable user account
Explanation
Rogue employees
Dial-in connections
Unhappy or dishonest employees are certainly a danger to network security. Also dial in connections could provide a means for unauthorized data access or hacking.
Event auditing and disabling user accounts can be used to protect network security.
Q-247
Which of the following would ensure data security across a WAN?
A
Encrypt data before transmission.
B
Use FTP
C
Use Telnet
D
Use a Digital Signature.
Explanation
Encrypt data before transmission
Encrypting changes the data into unreadable cypertext, which requires a key to be converted back to legible format. Encrypting data provides the best security across a connection.
Digital Signatures are for ensuring the data has not changed and that it is authentic. That is different from encrypting data.
Q-248
Which of the following statements are true?
A
User level security has centralized management.
B
Share level security is more restrictive than user level security.
C
Share level security requires more expensive hardware.
D
Share level security is used only with Windows NT Server.
Explanation
User level security has centralized management.
Share level security is in fact LESS restrictive than User level.
Share level security can be implemented on Windows 9x workstations
which are generally less expensive than servers running NT Server
Q-249
Which are true about user and share level security?
A
For server based networks (large networks), user level security requires less administrative effort.
B
Share level security is usually used in peer to peer networks.
C
Resources under share level security are centrally controlled.
D
Individual permissions may be set up with user level security.
Explanation
For server based networks (large networks), user level security requires less administrative effort.
Share level security is usually used in peer to peer networks.
Individual permissions may be set up with user level security.
User level security is normally used in server based networks. User level security allows the administrator to assign the user rights based on a user ID. With user level security, the administrator can assign individual permissions to users.
Share level security is better suited to small peer to peer networks and is limited to making specific resources available to others on the network, but not on an individual user basis.
Q-250
Which are good practices for a secure policy? (Choose two.)
A
Change password every three months.
B
Apply a minimum number of characters policy.
C
Password never expires.
D
Use only alphanumerical characters.
Explanation
Change password every three months.
Apply minimum number of characters policy
Passwords should be changed regularly.
They should contain a minimum number of characters. Four or less is too easy for cracking programs to break.
Combining symbols with alphabet and number characters make them harder to guess. ..."User$one"
They should be easy for the user to remember, otherwise they will write them down and place them somewhere that's easy to remember. Like under the keyboard.
Q-251
What technology does Windows 2000 Server use for security/authentication/encryption?
A
Kerberos
B
SSL
C
L2TP
D
IPSec
Explanation
Kerberos
A Windows 2000 environment uses Kerberos as the underlying authentication mechanism. Kerberos uses DES (Data Encryption Standard) which is a symmetric key encryption process. This means that the same key is used for both encryption and decryption.
Q-252
Name two types of firewalls.
A
Stateful Packet-Filters
B
Application Proxies
C
HTTP Proxies
D
Virtual Private Network
Explanation
Stateful Packet-Filters
Application Proxies
There are two basic type of firewalls: SPF (stateful packet-filter) firewalls and application proxy firewalls. SPF devices, examine packets up to Layer 4 (Tranport). These examine source and destination network address, type of service, protocol and type of frame. SPF firewalls tend to perform better because they do less processing.
Application proxy firewalls examine the entire packet up to the application layer and give administrators more control over the type of traffic passing to internal servers. Application proxies generally are slower than SPF firewalls because they perform more processing.
Q-253
A VLAN is a logical grouping of network users and resources connected to administratively defined ports on a switch. What might be some advantages to this? (Choose two.)
A
Increased security
B
Broadcast Control
C
Increased transmission speeds
D
Extension of the maximum permissible cable lengths
Explanation
Broadcast Control
Increased security
The most effective way of segmenting a network is through switching and routing. Broadcasts are filtered from all ports on a switch that are not members of the same VLAN. By using VLANs and creating multiple broadcast groups, you have control over each port and user. Users can no longer just plug their workstations into any switch port and have access to network resources. You control each port and whatever resources it is allowed to use.
LAN segmentation is an advanced topic not to be studied too thoroughly for Network+, but the new objectives include "Identify the main characteristics of VLANs"
Q-254
You decide to have your Web server enforce HTTPS. The server is no longer accessible from the Internet but is accessible internally. Why?
A
The DNS server is down
B
Web server address has changed
C
Internet router is blocking port 443
D
Internet router is blocking port 389
Explanation
Internet router is blocking port 443.
Port 443 is the well-known port number used by HTTPS. If it is blocked from the an Internet router it will be inaccessible from the other side of that router.
Q-255
What encryption is used for Windows 2000 server security?
A
SSL
B
LT2P
C
IPSec
D
Kerberos
Explanation
IPSec
The question asks us about encryption so IPSec is correct. IPSec defines protocols for network encryption at the IP Protocol layer. L2TP is a tunneling protocol which by itself provides no encryption and SSL has more to do with authentication and certificates. Kerberos has also to do with authentication (although it uses encrypted passwords to do so.) The best answer is IPSec.
Q-256
You want to enable WINS resolution on a Windows 98 machine. You start by right clicking network neighborhood, choose properties, click TCP/IP and click properties. What do you do next?
What do firewalls check to accomplish packet filtering? (Choose three.)
A
Source of the packet
B
Port number
C
Destination of the packet
D
DNS lookup
Explanation
Source of the packet, Port number, Destination of the packet
A firewall is any combination of hardware or software that filters potentially dangerous packets from entering the network. To determine what to do with the packet, the firewall compares each packet that it forwards against a specific set of rules.
Each data packet has a header, which contains information identifying the type of the packet, its originating host, and its intended destination. When a firewall gateway that is configured for packet filtering receives a packet, it may check any of the following:
1- The interface through which the packet arrived (i.e. Ethernet card and PPP modem connection)
2- The originating host
3- The destination host
4- The packet's type (for example, TCP and UDP)
5- The originating/destination port number (for TCP and UDP packets)
Q-258
Your class C LAN started with only 45 users. Now the LAN has grown to support 275 users. All need access to the Internet. How can you provide Internet connection to all users? (Choose two.)
A
Implement NAT
B
Apply for more IP addresses
C
Upgrade to a Class D network
D
Add a router to your network
Explanation
Implement NAT
Apply for more IP addresses
Your class C network can only support up to 254 hosts. You could attempt to upgrade to a class B network and be able to support over 65,000 hosts. But that is not one of the options. Plus it would be an overkill.
The logical choices would be to install a NAT which is similar to a proxy server, or apply for additional IP addresses.
A Class D network is not an option.
Q-259
You administer a network with many computers. You want to connect your network to the Internet with each workstation being able to browse the web. But you want one, and only one IP address to be seen on the Internet. What would you use to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A
Proxy server
B
IP Proxy
C
Router
D
HTTP Proxy
Explanation
Proxy server
IP Proxy
A Proxy server and an IP Proxy are the same thing.
A router would not isolate IP addresses.
An HTTP Proxy is used to cache web pages.
Q-260
Which relates to dynamic IP?
A
Enable DHCP (Obtain an IP address automatically)
B
Specify an IP address
C
Enable WINS
D
User level security
Explanation
Enable DHCP (Obtain an IP address automatically)
IP is dynamic if you have DHCP enabled and static if you specify IP addresses.
Enabling WINS and user level security are unrelated to whether IP is static or dynamic.
Q-261
You have a group of employees using the same web page. They have T1 connection and proxy server. How can you speed up the performance?
A
HTTP proxy
B
FTP proxy
C
IP proxy
D
There is nothing you can do
Explanation
HTTP proxy
An HTTP proxy stores frequently accessed web pages locally for quicker access. When you use your browser WITH a proxy, your PC does not contact the originating remote site. Instead, it sends your request to the local proxy server, which first checks to see if it already has a copy of the page. If so, it will send you that copy. Otherwise, it will retrieve the page on=ver the Internet.
IP Proxy is another term for proxy server. This is where one server provides Internet access to multiple users on the LAN, but only one IP address is used to connect to the Internet.
Other types of proxy servers are FTP for file transfers and SMTP for email.
Q-262
NAT (Network Address Translation) provides a service similar to which device?
A
Proxy Server
B
Router
C
DNS Server
D
Bridge
E
HTTP Server
F
DNS Server
Explanation
Proxy Server
NAT (Network Address Translation) or a proxy server will allow you to share an Internet IP address between multiple machines. This allows anyone on your internal LAN to access the Internet with one IP address This also provides limited security. If your gateway device is using NAT or a proxy, the gateway itself, is no more secure than it would be if those services were not running. It does, however, make the network behind somewhat harder to get to or attack, but even that is not always enough.
To some extent, NAT and proxy servers both act as firewalls, but only for the machines behind the NAT or proxy server. The gateway machine running the NAT/Proxy is still vulnerable.
Q-263
You have been given the task of implementing an IP connection for your company. The network has 270 clients. A former employee began this project. The former employee already received a Class C address from the InterNIC. You must meet the folowing requirements:
- All users must be able to connect to the Internet.
- All users must be able to connect at the same time.
Which two solutions would provide IP connectivity? (Choose two.)
A
Install a NAT firewall
B
Apply for additional Class C address space
C
Use IPX instead of IP
D
Use NetBIOS over IP
Explanation
Install a NAT firewall
Apply for additional Class C address space
We can rule out switching to IPX. The Internet requires TCP/IP.
We can also rule out NetBIOS. It does not support IP addresses.
A firewall with NAT would work because NAT can map thousands of internal IP addresses to a single external IP address.
Applying for additional Class C address space would work. They would need a total of 270 IP addresses, but the question doesn't specify how many, so additional Class C space should work.
Q-264
Novell NetWare 4.0 uses a distributed database for a directory service. What is this directory service called?
A
NDS
B
IPX
C
DNS
D
UDP
Explanation
NDS
Novell Directory Services
Q-265
Which is true about Static Routing?
A
Static Routing requires more administrative overhead than Dynamic Routing.
B
Dynamic Routing requires the administrator to define each network path.
C
RIP is used by Static routing to find the best path.
D
Static Routing is the norm and Dynamic Routing is the exception.
Explanation
Static Routing requires more administrative overhead than Dynamic Routing
Static Routing requires the administrator to manually enter the routing information.
Dynamic routing is what most computers are configured and requires little administrative involvement.
Q-266
Which type of IP Routing incorporates RIP?
A
DYNAMIC
B
CRC
C
STATIC
D
CIRCULAR
Explanation
DYNAMIC
RIP (Routing Information Protocol) and OSPF (open Shortest Path First) are dynamic routing protocols.
Q-267
Which of these routing methods needs the most administrative upkeep?
A
Static
B
Circular
C
Dynamic
D
RIP
Explanation
Static
With static routing, the administrator has to manually update the routing table with the latest changes. Dynamic routing requires less administrative effort that static routing.
RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is used with dynamic routing to help find the best path.
Circular routing is a condition where one router sends the packet to another and that router sends it back to the one it just received it from. When this cycle repeats itself, the packet gets lost.
Tracert can help identify where the circular routing cycle starts and identify the routers involved.
Q-268
What are the devices A and B in the exhibit?
A
MAUs
B
Hubs
C
Switches
D
Routers
Explanation
MAUs
This is a Token Ring network wired as "Star Wired Rings". The MAUs are connected with the Ring Out of the one to the Ring In of the other. The cables connecting the MAUs to the workstations appear to be only a single cable, but they have at least two sets of wires inside the insulation. In some cases, you may see Token Rings drawn with double lines to each workstation to illustrate the In/Out conductors.
Q-269
What method of transporting data with a switch is fastest?
A
Cut-through
B
Store-and-forward
C
Routing
D
Spanning Tree
E
Transparent
F
Broadcast
Explanation
Cut-through
The two basic methods used by switches are cut through and store and forward.
Cut through is the fastest, because it "cuts" into the data packets to read the source and destination of the packet and immediately sends the packets to their appropriate destination.
Store and forward waits until the switch has the entire data frame before sending it on so it can do error checking.
Q-270
Which device would you use to connect two Ethernet LANs together, one using TCP/IP and one using NetBEUI?
A
Gateway
B
Brouter
C
Router
D
Bridge
Explanation
Gateway
This question may tempt you to answer Brouter because TCP/IP is routable and NetBEUI is not routable. It's true that a Brouter could pass both protocols, but neither of the LANs could read the packets sent from the other LAN. TCP/IP hosts could not read NetBEUI packets from the NetBEUI LAN and vice-versa. If both LANs were using both protocols, a Brouter would work.
To connect two LANs using different protocols, you need to use a gateway.
Note: the term "gateway" has two different meanings in networking. "Default Gateway" refers to the router that connects the LAN to outside LANs or a WAN. A "Protocol Gateway" translates data between different protocols. Protocol gateways function at the higher levels of the protocol stack, up to and including the Application Layer.
Q-271
Which of the following are true of a WAN? (Choose four.)
A
WANs can cover great distances.
B
WANs can be connected permanently or on demand.
C
NetBEUI cannot be used.
D
WANs can use either full or half-duplex communications.
E
WANs require X.25.
F
WANs require fiber optic cable.
Explanation
WANs cover great distances.
WANs can be connected permanently or on demand.
NetBEUI cannot be used.
WANs can use either full or half-duplex communications.
Since WANs consist of two or more LANs connected together, (often over great distances), routable protocols are a must. This leaves out NetBEUI, which is not routable. There are many WAN technologies, including X.25, POTS, Frame Relay, ATM, and others. WANs may use either permanent dedicated lines or bandwidth on demand. Fiber optic cable is not a requirement for a WAN.
Q-272
Which header field routes datagrams?
A
Destination Address
B
Source address
C
Mac address
D
Port address
Explanation
Destination Address
The Destination Address of an IP packet header contains the IP address of the final destination of the packet.
Q-273
Which type of bridging is used with Token Ring?
A
Source Route
B
Transparent
C
Redundant
D
Spanning Tree
Explanation
Source route
Token Ring networks use a protocol called Source Route Bridging. With Source Route Bridging, the devices contain the routing table instead of the bridge itself.
Q-274
What bridging method should be used with the network in the diagram?
A
Transparent
B
Collision
C
Routing
D
Spanning Tree
Explanation
Transparent
Transparent bridging is used for bridging segments in an Ethernet network when only one bridge is used.
When using redundant bridges, there is a possibility of a bridge looping problem. Bridge Looping can be overcome by using the Spanning Tree Protocol.
Q-275
What bridging method should be used with the network in the diagram?
A
Spanning Tree
B
Transparent
C
Dynamic Routing
D
OSPF
Explanation
Spanning Tree
When using redundant bridges, there is a possibility of a bridge looping problem. Bridge Looping can be overcome by using the Spanning Tree Protocol.
Transparent bridging is used for bridging segments in an Ethernet network when only one bridge is used.
Q-276
Which must you edit to add NetBIOS name to IP address resolution?
A
LMHOSTS
B
HOSTS
C
Service
D
Protocol
Explanation
LMHOSTS
LMHOSTS is used to map NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
HOSTS is used to map UNIX computer names to IP addresses.
Q-277
Which of the following network operating systems uses partitions as part of its directory services? (Choose two.)
A
Novell 4.x
B
UNIX
C
Windows NT 4.0
D
Windows for Workgroups
E
Windows 2000
F
OS/2
Explanation
Novell 4.x
Windows 2000
Novell 4.x uses NDS partitions as part of its Novell Directory Services (NDS). Microsoft Windows Active Directory services also uses partitions to replicate directory services to domain controllers.
Both Active Directory and NDS are distributed databases, based on the x.500 standard, that stores information about the hardware and software resources available and provides an efficient method of network administration. A server participating in Active Directory holds at least three directory partitions:
- The schema
- The configuration (replication topology)
- Directory partitions (subtrees containing the objects in the directory)
Q-278
Of the following, which parameters can you configure on a workstation? (Choose three.)
A
WINS server
B
DNS server
C
Default gateway
D
The address of the DHCP server
Explanation
WINS server
DNS server
Default gateway
You can enable DHCP, but you don't enter the address of the DHCP server. When DHCP is enabled, addresses are automatically assigned by the DHCP server. If DHCP is not enabled you would also specify a static IP address.
Q-279
Your Windows NT network uses only TCP/IP. Of the following configuration options, which would you normally set on your workstation? (Choose four.)
A
IP address
B
Default gateway
C
WINS server
D
DHCP server
E
DNS server
F
Frame Type
Explanation
IP address, Default gateway, WINS server, DNS Server
There is no need to enter an address for the DHCP server. If DHCP is used, the workstation will automatically find the DHCP server and obtain an IP address.
Frame type is important, but is not part of a typical TCP/IP configuration. Frame type relates to the type of Ethernet your network is using. Frame type depends on if you use Novell NetWare, AppleTalk, or TCP/IP.
Q-280
What three things do you need to specify on a workstation for DNS resolution?
A
Domain name
B
Host name
C
IP address of the DNS server
D
NetBIOS name
Explanation
Domain name
Host name
IP address of the DNS server
Q-281
You want to manually configure the IP address for your NIC. You open Control Panel and double click Network. What other steps do you take?
A
Highlight TCP/IP for your NIC ] Properties ] IP Address tab ] Specify an IP address ] type in the IP address
B
Highlight "TCP/IP -] Dial Up" ] Properties ] IP Address tab ] Specify an IP address ] type in the IP address
C
Click Properties ] IP Address tab ] Specify an IP address ] type in the IP address
D
Highlight TCP/IP for your NIC ] Properties ] IP Address tab ] Obtain an IP address automatically ] type in the IP address
Explanation
Highlight TCP/IP for your NIC ] Properties ] IP Address tab ] Specify an IP address ] type in the IP address
You may also see "TCP/IP for the Dialup Adapter". This will not apply to the NIC.
Choosing "Obtain an IP address automatically" is for when you want to use DHCP
Q-282
You cannot access the server from a new client computer that uses NWLink. You are sure all the hardware is functioning properly. What is a likely cause of this problem?
A
The Frame Type is incorrect
B
Too many collisions on the network
C
Wrong IP address
D
Incorrect subnet mask
Explanation
The Frame Type is incorrect
NWLink IPX is Microsoft's implementation of IPX/SPX. Like Novell NetWare's IPX/SPX, the frame types must be set correctly.
Ethernet 802.3 frame type is used for NetWare 2.2 and 3.x
Ethernet 802.2 frame type is used for NetWare 3.12 and 4x networks.
"Wait" you say, "the numbers are backwards!" No, they are correct. 802.2 is the Logical Control specification and is required for NetWare 4x and later versions of 3.x
Too many collisions may make the network slow but it's not likely to completely prevent you from connecting.
IP address and Subnet mask are TCP/IP settings and are not related to IPX/SPX.
Q-283
You want to specify a static IP address using the workstation display. What do you do?
A
Click the IP Address tab / click specify IP address / enter IP address
B
Click obtain an IP address automatically
C
Click Advanced / Enter the IP address
D
Click specify an IP address
Explanation
Click the IP Address tab / click specify IP address / enter IP address
For a static IP address, you click Specify an IP Address.
For a dynamic IP address, you click "Obtain an IP Address Automatically", that means you are selecting DHCP .
Q-284
Your network uses a NetWare server. You have several Windows workstations and a couple of Unix workstations. Which client can you install on the Windows workstations that will allow them to connect to the NetWare server?
A
Microsoft Client for NetWare Networks
B
Novell NetWare Client for Windows
C
Gateway Services for NetWare
D
Gateway Services for Microsoft
Explanation
Microsoft Client for Novell NetWare
Novell Client Services for NetWare
A "client" is a software driver that handles the communication between the workstation and servers.
When Microsoft released Windows 95 in 1995, both Microsoft and Novell released new 32-bit clients for Windows 95 to use for accessing Novell servers. Microsoft also released a 32-bit client for Windows 95 to use when accessing NT servers or sharing files with other Windows workstations. These three clients are named as follows:
- Client for Microsoft Networks (from Microsoft - connects Windows machines to NT servers)
- Client for NetWare Networks (from Microsoft - connects Windows machines to NetWare servers)
- Novell Client Services for NetWare (from Novell - connects Windows machines to NetWare servers)
Gateway Services for NetWare is installed on a Windows NT/2000 server and not on individual workstations.
Q-285
Your Windows 2000 network must connect to several NetWare file and print servers. What would you install on your Windows 2000 servers to make this possible?
A
Client Services for NetWare
B
Gateway Services for NetWare
C
Novell NetWare Client
D
Client for NetWare Networks
Explanation
Gateway Services for NetWare
Gateway Services for NetWare (GSNW) is installed on Windows 2000 or NT servers. GSNW chief advantage is that you can avoid having to install Client Services for NetWare (CSNW) on every NT workstation needing access to NetWare file and print services. GSNW uses a single NetWare license while CSNW uses a license for each workstation it is installed on.
Q-286
You configure your TCP/IP to connect WINS. What configuration on your PC is required? (Choose two.)
A
Primary WINS server address
B
Enable WINS Resolution
C
Scope ID
D
Secondary WINS
Explanation
Primary WINS server address
Enable WINS Resolution
Enable WINS Resolution must be checked and you must provide the IP address of the Primary WINS server.
The Scope ID may be entered but it is not required.
A Secondary WINS is not required.
Q-287
You want to send a message to a friend at rick@network.au. Your address is jim@usa.com. What is the order that your domain names are resolved?
A
usa.com ] com ] au ] network.au
B
usa.com ] network.au ] com ] au
C
network.au ] usa.com ] au ] com
D
usa.com ] network.au ] au ] com
Explanation
usa.com ] com ] au ] network.au
Name resolution starts at the senders domain - "usa.com". From there just follow its path up to the top level domain "com". Then follow it over to the top level domain "au" and down to the "network.au" domain.
Q-288
What does a WINS server provide?
A
Resolves NetBIOS computer names to IP addresses
B
Resolves UNIX host names to IP addresses
C
Resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses
D
Resolves IPX addresses to IP addresses
Explanation
Resolves NetBIOS computer names to IP addresses
DNS resolves UNIX host names to IP addresses.
ARP resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses.
Q-289
What are three things that you need to set up a DNS server on your computer in a Windows NT domain?
A
DNS IP address
B
Windows NT domain
C
Host name
D
Default gateway
E
Subnet mask
F
MAC Address
Explanation
DNS IP Address
Windows NT domain
Host name
You can define more than one DNS Server IP address, which is recommended for fault tolerance if you have one available.
WinNT Domain is the network domain you log into.
Host name is normally the PC name.
Q-290
What resolves NetBIOS names to IP-Addresses?
A
WINS
B
Router
C
DNS
D
DHCP
Explanation
WINS (Windows Internet Name Server)
The key here is "NetBIOS" names.
Q-291
What protocol does a UNIX server use to resolve names?
A
DNS
B
NDS
C
LMHOSTS
D
DHCP
Explanation
DNS
Q-292
What file can be edited on a Windows NT 4.0 Server to help resolve the name www.microsoft.org to an IP address?
A
HOSTS
B
HOST
C
LMHOSTS
D
DNS
Explanation
HOSTS
Q-293
UNIX uses what to resolve machine names to IP addresses?
A
DNS
B
PING
C
WINS
D
LMHOSTS
Explanation
DNS
Unix uses DNS (Domain Name Service) to resolve machine names to IP addresses.
WINS and LMHOSTS are used with Microsoft networks.
PING has nothing to do with name resolution.
Q-294
Which cross platform name resolution method do all operating systems having TCP/IP stacks support ?
A
DNS
B
NDS
C
NFS
D
WINS
Explanation
DNS
Q-295
Which must you edit to add NetBIOS name to IP address resolution?
A
LMHOSTS
B
HOSTS
C
Service
D
Protocol
Explanation
LMHOSTS
LMHOSTS is used to map NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
HOSTS is used to map UNIX computer names to IP addresses
Q-296
What is the first character in a hosts file entry?
A
/
B
*
C
#
D
@
Explanation
#
This is a confusing question as an entry in a hosts file starts with an IP address. With this question, the only character you would even see in a hosts file is the "#".
The "#" is the first character in the "comment" section of a hosts file entry.
Q-297
A file that resides locally on a host and contains host names and their IP addresses is named ________.
A
HOSTS
B
HOST
C
ARP
D
DNS
Explanation
HOSTS
HOSTS is the name of the file that is used for mapping IP addresses to their UNIX host names.
LMHOSTS is for NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
Q-298
Which of the following are most similar?
A
NDS
B
Active Directory
C
DNS
D
NCP
Explanation
NDS and Active Directory
NDS (Novell Directory Services) and Active Directory (new to Windows 2000) are distributed databases of resources that are published to the network users. This makes administration much easier because it is all done from a central point. To the user it almost seems as though the resources are local.
NCP (NetWare Control Protocol) is an important protocol in the IPX/SPX protocol stack and is used to send data.
DNS (Domain Naming Service) is the technology which resolves or translates user friedly Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN) into an IP address.
Q-299
You add two computers to your network and set both MAC addresses to the same setting, both IRQs to 5 and both I/O Addresses to 300. You cannot get the computers to connect to the network. What is the solution?
A
Set the MAC addresses to their default settings.
B
Change one of the I/O addresses to 310
C
Try different IRQs
D
Try a new cable
Explanation
Set the MAC addresses to their default settings.
MAC or "Hardware" addresses must be unique on the network. NICs are programmed with unique MAC addresses and you normally should leave them at the default. Having both set to the same value would be like having two hosts with identical IP addresses.
As long as there are no conflicts, you may set the IRQ and I/O to the same on each PC.
Q-300
After you have configured RAID and installed a new virus suite in your network. There are sporadic system crashes throughout your network. What do you suggest?
A
Check for system patches or service packs for the virus suite.
B
Apply the newest virus signature file from the vendor.
C
Remove RAID.
D
Uninstall the virus suite.
Explanation
Check for system patches or service packs for the virus suite.
The latest signature file will help protect from the latest viruses but not from software conflicts.
Removing RAID and/or the Virus suite is a last resort. First you should check for system patches or service packs.
Q-301
You cannot get the tape drive to work. The error message says the tape drive is not available. You try a new cartridge but it still won't work. What do you do?
A
Use a tape cleaner.
B
Replace the adapter card.
C
Reinstall the driver.
D
Get a new tape drive,
Explanation
Use a tape cleaner
Always do the easy things first.
Q-302
Your entire network is bogged down. You and your assistant have checked all connections and you are convinced there are no conflicts. What can you use to help you narrow down the problem?
A
Network Monitor
B
Netstat
C
Tracert
D
Loopback hardware
Explanation
Network Monitor
Network Monitor can help identify the source of excessive network activity and after you know the source, you can implement a solution.
Netstat is used to display protocol statistics and current connections but it probably wouldn't help with this problem.
Tracert can help identify a problem to a specific server or router but here the problem isn't limited to a specific computer, it's the entire network.
A loopback connector is for troubleshooting a specific NIC, not the whole network.
Q-303
After replacing the NIC in a workstation it cannot connect to the network. You have verified that there are no resource conflicts. You are confident your trusted assistant configured and installed it correctly, but it still will not connect. What do you do next?
A
Test the NIC with troubleshooting software.
B
Install another NIC.
C
Call the vendor's tech support.
D
Look for a patch.
Explanation
Test the NIC with troubleshooting software.
At this point, you don't know for sure that the new NIC is good so you need to verify that it at least passes diagnostics first. Never get into the habit of assuming new components are not the problem. New parts can be and often are defective.
Q-304
All workstations in one room work fine during the day, but at night when the lights are on users have trouble accessing the network. What is the problem?
A
The cable is installed incorrectly.
B
The NIC has failed.
C
The employee's password expires during evening hours.
D
The voltage drops when the lights are on.
Explanation
The cable is installed incorrectly.
It is likely the cable is routed too close to the fluorescent light and is picking up Electromagnetic Interference (EMI), also called electrical noise, from the ballast. Consider the effects of heat on electrical signals, EMI from power lines or unshielded power cables as well as TV and radio interference. Common sources of EMI is fluorescent lights, elevator motors, large generators, and refrigerator magnets.
If the NIC had failed, you couldn't cause the problem to come and go by turning the lights on and off.
The employee's password would certainly work with the lights off!
The voltage drops could be an explanation but not as good as EMI from the lamp ballast.
Q-305
Your network users download several files from the Internet daily. What should you install to protect the network?
A
A Network virus protection suite
B
Virus protection in each workstation
C
A firewall
D
An HTTP proxy
Explanation
A Network virus protection suite
The key here is downloading files. This is how viruses are picked up. A Network virus protection suite is the preferred method.
Q-306
After changing your DHCP configuration on a Windows NT 4.0 Workstation, what command will display the new configuration?
A
Ipconfig /all
B
Winipcfg
C
Telnet
D
Ipconfig
Explanation
Ipconfig /all
NT 4 uses Ipconfig to view the IP configuration, but would not show the DHCP server. Ipconfig /all displays the complete configuration. Winipcfg is only for Windows 9x systems.
Q-307
What command displays the information in the exhibit?
A
Ipconfig
B
Winipcfg
C
ARP
D
Netstat
E
Nbstat
F
Tracert
Explanation
Ipconfig
Ipconfig is used for displaying IP configuration in Window NT 4 and Winipcfg is for Win 9x.
Q-308
A workstation cannot connect to the server. You are convinced it is not the software. Your cable tester shows one cable to be 90 meters from the wall jack to the patch panel. The workstation is connected to the wall jack with a 10-meter patch cable. Finally, there is a 3 meter patch from the panel to the hub.
Required Result: Get the workstation to connect to the server.
Optional Results: Increase overall network performance and decrease network downtime.
Proposed Solution: Replace 10 Meter patch with 5 Meter cable.
A
The proposed solution produces the required result and only one of the optional results.
B
The proposed solution produces the required result and both optional results.
C
The proposed solution produces only the required result.
D
The proposed solution does not produce the required result.
Explanation
The proposed solution produces the required result and only one of the optional results.
The total length of the cables is over 100 meters. Your solution will bring the total below 100 which solves the problem with not being able to connect. It should also improve network reliability, but it will have no effect on increasing network overall performance.
Q-309
An employee calls you and complains that he cannot connect to the Internet. You tried to connect from his workstation using his account and password and had no trouble connecting. The employee continues to have problems connecting to the Internet. What's wrong?
A
He is trying to connect incorrectly .
B
The server is unavailable.
C
The web server is bogged down
D
The local network is down
Explanation
He is trying to connect incorrectly .
Use the process of elimination. Since you could connect from his workstation you have verified the other items are in working order.
Q-310
Printing services will not load on one of your servers after a recent upgrade. What should you check to help pinpoint the problem?
A
Server log files
B
Protocol Analyzer
C
Server peripheral logs
D
Network Monitor
Explanation
Server log files
Server logs keep track of data that may be useful in troubleshooting printer driver problems.
Neither Network Monitor nor a Protocol Analyzer would be used to troubleshoot printer or printer driver problems.
Server peripheral logs is a bogus answer.
Q-311
The network is running extremely slow. You suspect a NIC in one of the workstations is generating a continuous transmission. Which troubleshooting tool would help isolate the defective NIC?
A
Protocol Analyzer
B
Volt-Ohmmeter (VOM)
C
SNMP
D
Time Domain Reflector (TDR)
Explanation
Protocol Analyzer
A Protocol Analyzer would be the best choice for finding the source of garbage broadcasts.
A VOM is used to check voltage and cables for continuity.
A TDR is used to find breaks in a cable. It won't help troubleshoot a NIC.
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is not a tool in and of itself, even though it has a part in network monitoring.
Q-312
Your workstation has a Modem on COM1, a Mouse on COM2 and a printer on LPT1 and a scanner on LPT2. Why cannot you use IRQ5 for your NIC?
A
Conflict with the scanner
B
Conflict with the printer
C
Conflict with the mouse
D
Conflict with the modem
Explanation
Conflict with the scanner
COM 1 uses IRQ4
COM 2 uses IRQ3
LPT1 uses IRQ7
LPT2 uses IRQ5
Q-313
A newly installed sound card works properly except during printing. What could be the problem?
A
The LPT printer cable is bad.
B
There is an IRQ conflict between the printer and sound card.
C
The printer is out of toner.
D
The motherboard is bad.
Explanation
There is an IRQ conflict between the printer and sound card.
Q-314
You install a new NIC in a workstation and it will not connect to the network. There are no resource conflicts and everything is configured correctly. What should you do?
A
Test the NIC with a hardware loopback connector
B
Apply a patch
C
Replace the NIC with another one
D
Call the vendor
Explanation
Test the NIC with a hardware loopback connector
At this point, you don't know for sure that the new NIC is good so you need to verify that it at least passes diagnostics first. Never get into the habit of assuming new components are not the problem. New parts can be and often are defective.
Q-315
What should you do if a user cannot log onto a server? (Choose three.)
A
Get someone else on the same segment to try and connect to the server.
B
Get someone on a remote segment to try and connect to the server.
C
Attempt to ping the server.
D
Try a new cable.
Explanation
Attempt to ping the server.
Get someone else on the same segment to try and connect to the server.
Get someone on a remote segment to try and connect to the server.
Try to reproduce and isolate the problem before replacing hardware.
Q-316
A workstation was working fine but now suddenly cannot connect to the server. All other computers on the network can connect. What do you check first?
A
Loose network cable
B
IRQ conflict
C
Wrong transceiver
D
Incorrect frame Type
Explanation
Loose Network cable
Any of the choices could certainly cause the problem, but the key here is that it was working fine. Since you have no reason to believe anything was changed, a loose cable connection is the best place to start.
Q-317
A co-worker cannot print to the network printer. His group has the correct permissions to print. Other users of the same group have no trouble printing to the same printer. What could the problem be?
A
His user access permissions are wrong.
B
The network utilization is too high.
C
The printer domain is set incorrectly.
D
The printer cable is broken.
Explanation
His user access permissions are wrong.
Since other users can use the printer, and we are told he has the correct permissions to print, that eliminates the cable, domain settings and access authorization. The problem must be confined to settings specific to the individual user.
Q-318
Your have a workstation 103 meters from the server. You are using a passive hub and it is using 10baseT wiring. The workstation will not connect.
Required objectives: Connect to the server.
Optional Objectives: Faster connection, fewer collisions.
Proposed solution: replace the NIC with a 100baseFX NIC .
A
This does not meet the required or optional objectives.
B
This meets the required and both optional objectives.
C
This meets only the required objective and neither of the optional.
D
This meets the optional objective only.
Explanation
This does not meet the required or optional objectives.
You cannot use a Fiber Optic NIC with 10BaseT wiring.
Q-319
Computers are rebooting intermittently. The room is cold so people have started using space heaters. You suspect the space heaters are causing the problem. What problem would the space heaters cause?
A
Voltage drop
B
Bad wiring
C
Bad NIC
D
BAD UPS
Explanation
Voltage drop
Space heaters draw a lot of current. It is very likely the voltage could drop enough to cause intermittent problems when their thermostats switch on and off.
Q-320
Your network of 80 computers is completely bogged down. All connections are OK and you can find no conflicts. What troubleshooting tool would you use to find the problem?
A
Network Monitor
B
Loopback tool
C
NBTStat
D
Netstat
Explanation
Network Monitor
Network Monitor is the only answer that applies here. The Network Monitor (SNMP Agent) must be installed before Performance Monitor can track per segment usage.
Loopback connectors are used along with NIC troubleshooting software to verify the NIC is working properly.
NBTStat displays a list of NetBIOS computer names.
Netstat displays protocol statistics and current TCP/IP connections.
Q-321
After installing a NIC on a workstation, the workstation can no longer communicate with the hub. What could be the problem? (Choose two.)
A
DMA
B
IRQ
C
IP address
D
Frame Type
Explanation
DMA
IRQ
Installing a NIC would have no effect on TCP/IP settings or Frame types. However, an IRQ or DMA conflict is always a good suspect. The important point here is that IRQ and DMA conflicts should be at the top of the list to check when a new card doesn't work.
Q-322
You have replaced a NIC in a workstation connected to a token ring network. The workstation cannot connect to the server. What is the problem?
A
The NIC is set for the wrong speed.
B
The NIC has the wrong IP address.
C
The NIC is in the wrong slot.
D
There is not enough memory.
Explanation
The NIC is set for the wrong speed.
The NIC speed must match the rest of the network. In Token Ring, that could be 4 Mbps or 16 Mbps.
Q-323
What utility should be used to capture and decode TCP/IP packets?
A
Network Monitor
B
NBTStat
C
Performance Monitor
D
Hardware Loopback
Explanation
Network Monitor
Q-324
Which indicator is best to determine whether or not a server is responding to client requests?
A
Ability to log in and transfer files.
B
Response time measured with a protocol analyzer.
C
Power light.
D
Disk drive activity light.
Explanation
Ability to log in and transfer files.
Q-325
Your customer has called you because none of the workstations on their network can access the Internet. Tech support has been able to ping the router, but cannot telnet into it. The routers ICMP port 0 is not open. Which two of the following might help the problem? (Choose two.)
A
restart the router
B
replace patch cord c
C
disconnect the hub
D
replace patch cord b
Explanation
restart the router
replace patch cord c
Since tech support can ping the router, we know cable A, the cable modem, and cable B are OK.
Even though tech support can ping the router, that does not mean the router is working properly, especially since they cannot telnet into it. So restarting the router is a possible solution. The fact that the router's ICMP port 0 is irrelevant.
A defective patch cord C is also possible, so replacing it is another possible solution.
Q-326
You take over as a help desk administrator and one of the workstations running Windows 2000 Professional cannot connect to a remote network. You suspect it has the wrong default gateway setup. What utility do you use to check it?
A
Ipconfig /all
B
Netstat
C
Tracert
D
NBTStat
E
Ping
F
ARP
Explanation
Ipconfig /all
Ipconfig /all displays the configuration settings for a Windows NT and 2000 host including gateway MAC address and subnet mask.
Some IPconfig options are:
/renew - Renews the DHCP lease
/release - Releases the DHCP lease and the IP address is available for other clients.
/all displays more configuration information.
Note! - ipconfig /all will display an IP address of 0.0.0.0 and DHCP address of 255.255.255.255 if the DHCP attempt was unsuccessful.
Q-327
You install a new NIC on a workstation on a network using DHCP for automatic configuration. You cannot connect to the server. You change patch cables but it is still not working. What do you do next?
A
reinstall NIC driver
B
reboot the workstation
C
reboot the server
D
restart the router
Explanation
reinstall NIC driver
The workstation would have rebooted when you turned the power back on. Nothing was changed in the Router or Server, so no need to reboot them. The MAC address is burned into the chip on the card by the manufacturer, and would rarely need to be changed. Since you are using DHCP, you don't need to enter IP address or subnet mask. However the correct driver for the new NIC does need to be installed.
Q-328
You cannot connect to the server. What is the first troubleshooting action?
A
Have another user on the same subnet try and connect.
B
Reboot the server
C
Reboot the workstation
D
Reboot the router
Explanation
Have another user on the same subnet try and connect.
The first step in troubleshooting is to try and isolate the problem to as few suspects as possible. If another user on your subnet can connect, that tells you it is not the server and you can focus on trying to eliminate other items. Each time you verify a suspected component is NOT the problem, that puts you closer to what IS the problem.
Q-329
A user calls and complains that he cannot log on the Intranet site. You try logging on with his user name a password and you're successful. What is the problem?
A
He has the caps lock on.
B
Not a member of the domain.
C
User doesn't have permission.
D
User's password expired.
Explanation
He has the caps lock on
Q-330
Jeri could connect to the server this morning, but now cannot connect after lunch. What do you do first?
A
Check for error messages.
B
Check for IRQ conflict
C
Check for DMA conflict
D
Verify IP address configuration
Explanation
Check for error messages.
An error message could point you directly to the problem, which would be the first place to start. Since she could connect this morning, and you have no reason to think the IRQ, DMA and IP settings have changed, you should make the simpler checks first. This would include error messages and trying to connect from another workstation. Rebooting the server and disconnecting other hosts from the hub would disrupt too many other users and should be a last resort.
Q-331
A user cannot access the server which is in a room across the hall. There are no other workstations nearby. What is the first step you should take to identify the problem?
A
Look to see if the server is down.
B
Try to connect from another workstation.
C
Reboot the workstation.
D
Try a new patch cable.
Explanation
Look to see if the server is down.
Since the server is right across the hall, the quickest check, among the choices given, would be to check the server. You would also want to personally attempt connect at the user's workstation to see if the user is doing it properly.
Q-332
Several users cannot log on to the server. What would you do first to see if it is the server, network or workstations?
A
Check the server for active connections.
B
Run NBTStat.
C
Check the patch cables on the workstations.
D
Run Netstat.
Explanation
Check server for active connections.
Since several workstations cannot connect, it is very unlikely the workstations or their cables are the culprit. Of the answers given, checking the server for active connections makes the most sense. It could be under a SYN flood or simply overloaded.
Q-333
You place a new NIC in a workstation. You cannot connect to the network. There are no resource conflicts. Everything is configured and installed correctly, yet you still cannot connect. What do you do?
A
Use a hardware loopback on the workstation.
B
Use a Protocol Analyzer.
C
Use a TDR (Time Domain Reflectometer).
D
Use a hardware loopback on the server.
Explanation
Use a hardware loopback on the workstation.
The first thing to do is verify the new NIC is working. A loopback connector and the proper software will allow you to do this. Since the NIC is on a workstation, you would attach the loopback tool the that workstation. The software will send a signal to the loopback connector and it will "loop" it back to the NIC's input circuitry. The software will monitor the NIC's input circuitry for the looped back signal.
Q-334
A user cannot access the application server, which is in a closet down the hall. What is the first step you should take to identify the problem?
A
See if a nearby user can access the server on their workstation.
B
Reboot workstation.
C
Check if the server is down.
D
Verify the application is active.
Explanation
See if a nearby user can access the server on their workstation.
It's best to take the easiest and least timing consuming steps first. In this case, the server is not readily accessible and it would be quicker to try to connect on another workstation.
If you can connect from another workstation, you would focus on the user and workstation that cannot connect.
In real life, you, yourself, should try to connect from the suspected workstation to be sure the user is trying to connect properly. But that is not one of the choices.
Q-335
Your network utilization suddenly rises and stays high. What should you do first to solve the problem?
A
Identify the faulty network segment
B
Verify the problem is solved
C
Identify the faulty node
D
Identify the defective NIC
Explanation
The first step is to isolate the network segment that contains the source of the problem.
You actually took the first "official" CompTIA first step when you identified the symptom of high network utilization. You should also know the CompTIA strategy for troubleshooting network problems. This is based on common sense and should not be difficult to remember.
1) Establish the symptoms.
2) Identify the affected area.
3) Establish what has changed.
4) Select the most probable cause.
5) Implement a solution.
6) Test the result.
7) Recognize the potential effects of the solution.
8) Document the solution.
Q-336
Network utilization spikes and stays high. What is first troubleshooting step?
A
Isolate faulty node
B
Verify problem resolution
C
Isolate faulty network segment.
D
Isolate the faulty NIC.
Explanation
Isolate the faulty NIC.
We have to isolate the chattering NIC. But first we have to know which segment it is on and then which machine it is installed on. If we have a multiple segments look at the big picture first and then like a detective narrow it down. Faulty segment, node then NIC.
You cannot verify the problem resolution if you have neither found nor solved the problem.
Q-337
Which of the following are Unix/Linux file attributes? (Choose three.)
A
Read
B
Write
C
Execute
D
Modify
Explanation
Read
Write
Execute
Modify refers to Microsoft Windows NTFS permissions and only apply to volumes formatted in the NTFS file system.
Q-338
What is the loopback IP address in IPv6?
A
0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1
B
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
C
127.0.0.0.0.0.0.0
D
127:0:0:0:0:0:0:0
Explanation
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
This is best described in the RFC1884.
"The unicast address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 is called the loopback address. It may be used by a node to send an IPv6 datagram to itself. It may never be assigned to any interface. The loopback address must not be used as the source address in IPv6 datagrams that are sent outside of a single node."
Q-339
Which connectors or media are utilized with FDDI? (Choose two.)
A
RJ-45
B
SC
C
ST
D
HM-RJ
Explanation
SC
ST
ST is the round connector used on Fiber Optic cabling in Europe.
SC is the square connector used on Fiber Optic cabling in North America
Q-340
What IEEE standard deals with wireless?
A
802.2
B
802.4
C
802.11
D
802.26
Explanation
802.11
802.11 refers to a family of specifications developed by the IEEE for wireless LAN technology. This is an over-the-air interface between a wireless client and a base station or between two wireless clients. The IEEE accepted the specification in 1997. Scroll down to learn more.
802.11 -- Wireless LANs and provides 1 or 2 Mbps transmission in the 2.4 GHz band using either frequency hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) or direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS).
802.11a -- Applies to wireless LANs and provides up to 54 Mbps in the 5GHz band. 802.11a uses an orthogonal frequency division multiplexing encoding scheme rather than FHSS or DSSS.
802.11b (802.11 High Rate or Wi-Fi) -- Applies to wireless LANs and provides 11 Mbps transmission (with a fallback to 5.5, 2 and 1 Mbps) in the 2.4 GHz band. 802.11b uses only DSSS. 802.11b was a 1999 ratification to the original 802.11 standard, allowing wireless functionality comparable to Ethernet.
802.11g -- applies to wireless LANs and provides 20+ Mbps in the 2.4 GHz band
Q-341
Which two IEEE standards deal with common network topologies?
A
802.2
B
802.3
C
802.5
D
802.6
Explanation
802.3
802.5
802.2=Logical Link Control
802.3=CSMA/CD or Ethernet
802.5=Token Ring
802.6=MAN
Q-342
Which connectionless protocol resides in layer four of the OSI model?
A
TCP
B
IP
C
UDP
D
IPX
Explanation
UDP
As the layers are numbered starting with Application layer being layer seven and ending with Physical layer being layer one, then layer four is the transport layer.
IPX and IP are in layer three, the Network layer. TCP is connection orientated protocol.
Q-343
Which networking devise is responsible for delivering packets within a LAN?
A
Hub
B
Bridge
C
Switch
D
Router
Explanation
Router
The key word is "packet". In the OSI model: the Transport layer deals with datagrams. The Data Link layer (bridges and switches) use Frames and the Physical layer (hubs and repeaters) utilizes bits. The only layer of the OSI that officially uses "packets" is the Transport Layer. The only device listed from the Transport layer is the Router.
Q-344
What is the maximum cable length of 10base2 before the signal begins to erode?
A
100 meters
B
185 meters
C
300 meters
D
500 meters
Explanation
185 meters
The number before the word "base" is always the speed. Cables are always "base". The only changing factor is what comes after the "base" (i.e. T, 2, 5). That character represents the length.
T= 100 meters
2= almost 200 meters, 185m
5= 500 meters
Q-345
Which of the following protocols are used in conjunction with Network Access Storage (NAS)? (Choose two)
A
TCP/IP
B
Frame Relay
C
IPX
D
SMDS
Explanation
TCP/IP
IPX
Frame Relay and SMDS are WAN protocols, but NAS is storage areas made available on the network. So TCP/IP and IPX are the protocols to implement.
Q-346
A new user's workstation has been added in an office. This includes telephone and network wiring installation. Users in the office now report they cannot access the Internet. You check and confirm there are no other problems and other users at the office can connect to the WAN. You have investigated the problem in great detail. Now what do you do?
A
Implement a corrective course of action
B
Formulate an hypothesis
C
Give feedback to the user
D
Install the latest service pack
Explanation
Implement a corrective course of action
This is based on the seven steps for troubleshooting.
1- Identify the exact problem
2- Duplicate the problem
3- Isolate the cause of the problem
4- Formulate and implement a solution
5- Test the solution
6- Document the problem and the solution
7- Give feedback to the user.
Q-347
Identify the media and connectors used with 10base2. (Choose three.)
A
UTP
B
STP
C
RG-58
D
T connector
E
BNC terminator
F
MAU connectors
Explanation
RG-58
T connector
BNC terminator
10base2 is thinnet, used in a bus topology. As such, the T connector are needed to add the clients onto the bus, the BNC Terminators to terminate each end of the bus and the RJ-58 is coax cabling.
Q-348
The MAU on your Token Ring network is overworked. A new MAU is added to the Network to share the workload. After the new MAU is added, connectivity is not possible on the network. You suspect that the installer installed the connections between the MAUs incorrectly. How should they be connected?
A
The uplink ports should be connected together, downlink ports should be connected together.
B
The ring in ports should be connected together, ring out ports should be connected together.
C
On each MAU the uplink port should be connected to downlink ports on the other MAU.
D
On each MAU the ring out port should be connected to the ring in port of the other MAU
Explanation
On each MAU the ring out port should be connected to the ring in port of the other MAU
A MAU does not have an uplink port like an Ethernet hub does.
Q-349
IPv6 addresses are 128-bit identifiers for interfaces and sets of interfaces. What are the three address types?
A
Unicast
B
Anycast
C
Multicast
D
Broadcast
Explanation
Unicast
Anycast
Multicast
There are no broadcast addresses in IPv6, their function being superseded by multicast addresses.
IPv6 addresses are 128-bit identifiers for interfaces and sets of interfaces. There are three types of addresses:
Unicast: An identifier for a single interface. A packet sent to a unicast address is delivered to the interface identified by that address.
Anycast: An identifier for a set of interfaces (typically belonging to different nodes). A packet sent to an Anycast address is delivered to one of the interfaces identified by that address (the "nearest" one, according to the routing protocols' measure of distance).
Multicast: An identifier for a set of interfaces (typically belonging to different nodes). A packet sent to a multicast address is delivered to all interfaces identified by that address.
Q-350
How many nodes may exist on a 10Base2 segment?
A
Up to 30
B
Up to 90
C
Up to 925
D
Unlimited if they are all grounded.
Explanation
Up to 30
This relates to the 5-4-3 rule for Ethernet bus networks. It specifies that the network can have up to five segments connected by four repeaters. Only three of the segments may be populated. There is a maximum of 90 nodes per 10Base2 network (3 populated segments X 30 nodes = 90 nodes). The maximum overall network length is 925 meters (5 segments X 185 meters = 925 meters).
For 10Base5 (Thicknet), there may be 100 nodes per segment. For 10Base2 (Thinnet) there may be only 30 nodes per segment.
Q-351
Which of the following uses FDM (Frequency Division Multiplexing)?
A
Broadband
B
Baseband
C
SLIP
D
PPTP
Explanation
Broadband
Broadband is a communications technique using frequency division multiplexing (FDM). The media bandwidth is divided into multiple channels, each channel has its own frequency, and any device tuned to that frequency can obtain the data.
Baseband uses a single frequency and the entire bandwidth of the media is used by a single communication.
SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) is an older line protocol used for dial up networking.
PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol) is a new protocol used for creating secure VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) over existing public networks.
Q-352
Which one is a valid MAC address?
A
03:c3:a1:f2:34:c4
B
213.122.10.10
C
03:c3:f2:34:c4
D
102.54.94.97 rhino.acme.com # source server
Explanation
03:c3:a1:f2:34:c4
213.122.10.10 --- This is an IP address.
102.54.94.97 rhino.acme.com # source server --- This is a host file entry.
03:c3:f2:34:c4 --- This one is only 5 bytes long.
MAC addresses are 6 byte hexadecimal numbers. You may see the printed with colons or spaces separating the bytes.
If you're using Windows 9X try running Winipcfg. Your MAC address will be displayed as the "Adapter Address".
Q-353
When a UNIX host receives an IP package, how does it know which service is to receive it?
A
Port number
B
MAC
C
Connection number
D
IP address
Explanation
Port Number
The port number is used to determine which "service", such as Telnet, HTTP, FTP, etc. that the packet is to be sent to.
The IP and MAC addresses are used to determine which "host" is to receive the packets.
Q-354
What is the port number for NNTP?
A
119
B
80
C
23
D
25
Explanation
119
NNTP (Network News Transport Protocol) uses port 119.
Q-355
What device do you use to terminate a 10BaseT cable?
A
No termination is needed
B
One 50 ohm resistor only
C
50 ohm resistor on both sides
D
Terminating resistor on each NIC
Explanation
No termination is needed
10BaseT uses Unshielded Twisted Pair which needs no termination.
Q-356
What can support 1 Mb to 10 Mb per second up to 500 meters? (Choose two.)
A
10base5
B
Thicknet
C
10baseT
D
10baseF
Explanation
10base5 or Thicknet
10Base5 and Thicknet are different words that refer to the same type of network. This is the original Ethernet network which uses 1/2 inch coax cable (!0Base5) with Vampire Taps and AUI connectors.
Q-357
What is signal overflow from another wire called?
A
Crosstalk
B
Attenuation
C
Bottleneck
D
Beaconing
Explanation
Crosstalk
Attenuation is where signals degenerate over a long stretch of cable.
A Bottleneck is where a segment or network device becomes bogged down by excessive network activity or other causes.
Beaconing is a term used in Token Ring networks to notify other workstations of errors.
Q-358
Which type of network has multiple redundant links?
A
MESH
B
RING
C
STAR
D
BUS
Explanation
MESH
Mesh networks have multiple links from node to node to provide the maximum possible reliability.
Q-359
Which tool is used to view and monitor network packets?
A
Packet Monitor
B
TCP
C
Datagram Viewer
D
Hex Editor
Explanation
Packet monitor
A packet monitor is typically included as part of a protocol analyzer and is used to simplify network maintenance by collecting, time-stamping and saving all network communications into log files.
Q-360
A user cannot access an application on the server. What should you do first to resolve the issue?
A
See if other workstations can access the application
B
Reboot the Server
C
Reboot the Workstation
D
See if the application is active
Explanation
See if other workstations can access the application.
Of the choices given, this is the easiest and should be done first. If others can access the application, you have demonstrated the server and application are both working. This narrows it down to the workstation or the workstation's ability to connect. The user may be trying to connect incorrectly. The next thing would be to try to run the application from the user's workstation yourself.
Q-361
The link lights on the router and the hub for cable C are not illuminated. What is least likely the problem?
A
Modem
B
Router
C
Patch cable C
D
Hub
Explanation
Modem
With the conditions given, the modem is least likely to be the suspect.
Either the router, hub or cable C could cause this.
Q-362
The workstation will not connect and the NIC's link light is not flashing. You try another patch cable and it is still not flashing. Next, you switch the connectors on the hub and it starts blinking. What should be the next step?
A
Log in and verify you can connect
B
Reseat the NIC
C
Install a patch
D
Try a new HUB
Explanation
Log in and verify you can connect
Since the link light started flashing, you have good reason to think it was a connector not pushed all the way in and that you have fixed it. Logging on to the server and transferring a file will confirm if the problem is solved.
You should not replace more parts or software until you know for sure what effect the previous step had.
Q-363
What utility do you use to check your IP configuration on a Windows 98 workstation?
A
Winipcfg
B
Ping
C
Netstat
D
Ipconfig
Explanation
Winipcfg
Use this utility to see the TCP/IP configuration of your computer. It will display your IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, hardware MAC address. It is used from command prompt on Windows 95/98. It is very useful if your computer is obtaining Its IP address from DHCP server and you need to find out what IP address has been assigned to you.
IPconfig has the same function as WINIPCFG, except it is used on NT computers. For more detailed information use with a switch IPconfig /all.
Q-364
The light on your network interface card in your workstation is no longer lit. You have verified that the card is properly configured. What can you use to determine whether the card is sending data?
A
Internal MAU loopback
B
External MAU loopback
C
Internal hardware loopback
D
External hardware loopback
Explanation
External Hardware Loopback
A hardware loopback is a connector on a computer that is useful for troubleshooting hardware problems, allowing data to be transmitted to a line, then returned as received data. If the transmitted data does not return, the hardware loopback detects a hardware malfunction.
Q-365
Which connectors are used with fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)
A
SC
B
ST
C
RJ-45
D
Serial
Explanation
SC
ST
Also used are MIC and VF-45 connectors.
Q-366
Who assigns public static IP addresses on the Internet?
A
ICANN
B
ASCII
C
IEEE
D
InterNIC
Explanation
ICANN
The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is the non-profit corporation that was fromed to assume responsibility for the IP address space allocation, protocol parameter assignment, domain name system management, and root server system management functions previously performed under U.S. Government contract by IANA and other entities.
Q-367
You must combine a Novell NetWare network running the IPX/SPX protocol with a Windows NT network running NetBEUI. You want to route the IPX/SPX protocol and bridge the NetBEUI protocol. You also want to provide the functionality of a repeater. What should you install?
A
Brouter
B
Router
C
Bridge
D
Switch
Explanation
Brouter
The pertinent part of the question is: "You want to route the IPX/SPX protocol and bridge the NetBEUI protocol."
Bridge + router = brouter.
Q-368
Which piece of hardware is needed to connect a computer to an ISDN line?
A
ISDN Adapter
B
Modem
C
CSU/DSU
D
TSU
Explanation
ISDN Adapter
For simple ISDN connections the signal must go into a network termination device (NT1). This is often built into the device such as an ISDN modem or terminal adapter.
Q-369
What is a characteristic of clients?
A
They are only allowed to request services from network devices and servers.
B
They provide services to network devices and servers.
C
They are stand alone computers.
D
They request services from other clients.
Explanation
They are only allowed to request services from network devices and servers
Q-370
What allows you to increase the number of host addresses on a subnet by borrowing bits from the network address?
A
Subnet Mask
B
Network Translation Server
C
MAC address
D
IP address
Explanation
Subnet Mask
Subnetting allows you to take one larger network and break it into many smaller networks. Some of the benefits of subnetting include the following:
- Reduced network traffic. With routers, most traffic will stay on the local network; only packets destined for other networks will pass through the router. Routers create broadcast domains. The smaller broadcast domains you create, the less network traffic on that network
segment.
- Optimized network performance. This is a result of reduced network traffic.
- Simplified management It’s easier to identify and isolate network problems in a group of smaller connected networks than within one gigantic network.
- Facilitated spanning of large geographical distances Because WAN links are considerably slower and more expensive than LAN links, a single large network that spans long distances can create problems in every arena listed above. Connecting multiple smaller networks makes the system
more efficient.
Q-371
After you upgrade a server with a new operating system, you discover that the server's network interface cards do not have drivers that are supported by the new operating system. Where might you find an updated driver for the network cards? (Choose two.)
A
Manufacturer's CD
B
Manufacturer's Website
C
Manufacturer's Hotline
D
Readme.txt
Explanation
Manufacturer's CD or their Website
Q-372
Which operating system uses the IPSec security protocol by default?
A
Windows 2000
B
Windows NT
C
NetWare
D
Unix
Explanation
Windows 2000
Windows Internet Protocol security (IPSec) is designed to encrypt data as it travels between two computers, protecting the data from modification and interpretation if anyone were to see it on the network.
Q-373
What are the range classifications for TCP/IP port numbers? (Choose three.)
A
Private
B
Well Known
C
Registered
D
Virtual
Explanation
Private
Well Known
Registered
The port numbers are divided into three ranges: the Well Known Ports, the Registered Ports, and the Dynamic and/or Private Ports.
The Well Known Ports are those from 0 through 1023.
The Registered Ports are those from 1024 through 4915.
The Dynamic and/or Private Ports are those from 49152 through 65535.
Q-374
Which protocol is primarily responsible for addressing and routing packets between hosts and will always make a "best effort" attempt to deliver these packets?
A
IP
B
TCP
C
UDP
D
HTTP
Explanation
IP
UDP and IP are connectionless. Therefore it uses the "best effort" attempt to deliver packets. However only IP is primarily responsible for addressing and routing packets between hosts.
Q-375
An eight-port device receives a signal through port five. That signal is then sent back out through ports one, two, three, four, six, seven, and eight without any signal regeneration. Which type of hub has been described?
A
Passive Hub
B
Active Hub
C
Switch
D
MAU
Explanation
Passive Hub
To say, "without any signal regeneration" means that the device is passively passing the signal and because it sent the signal to all ports indiscriminately it is a hub.
Q-376
What is the primary purpose of a domain controller?
A
To provide user authentication for Windows 2000 and NT clients.
B
To provide user authentication for NetWare clients.
C
To provide automatic configuration options for clients.
D
To provide FQDN to IP resolution.
Explanation
To provide user authentication for Windows 2000 and NT clients.
A domain controller holds security and directory database information for a domain in the Active Directory. Whereas Windows NT 4.0 used the backup domain controller (BDC) and primary domain controller (PDC) model, Windows 2000 no longer maintains these different levels of controllers. The domain controllers in Windows 2000 share their information with all the domain controllers in an organization and the information can be edited from any domain controller.
Q-377
Customers access the Exam Drill Software Web site by its domain name, www.examdrill.com. This domain name is then converted by IP to its IP address. What does IP use for this domain-name conversion?
A
DNS
B
DHCP
C
NDS
D
NAT
Explanation
DNS
Domain Name System is a set of protocols and services in the TCP/IP protocol suite. To resolve a domain name to IP address, your browser contacts a DNS server. The address of a DNS server is provided by your ISP. If the domain name is not found in your ISP's DNS, the ISP's DNS requests that information from the root domain server. The root domain server is responsible for maintaining database of top level domains like .com, .net, .org and country specific domains like .DE and .SE.
Q-378
You want to connect two networks via a WAN with a leased T1 line. What device would you use connect the router on each network to the T1 line?
A
CSU/DSU
B
Modem
C
ISDN adapter
D
Demarc
Explanation
CSU/DSU
CSU/DSUs are used to connect routers to a leased line.
Q-379
On a Microsoft Windows NT 4.0 Server and Windows 2000 Server, what key combination to you use to display the Login Information dialog box?
A
Ctrl + Alt + Delete
B
Esc + Delete
C
Ctrl + Shift + Delete
D
Ctrl + AltGr + Delete
Explanation
Ctrl + Alt + Delete
This opens the security dialog box from which you can log in under a different name, open Task Manager, lock the computer or shutdown.
Q-380
Which of the following should you not back up during a daily incremental backup?
A
Operating system files
B
Application files
C
User documents
D
User data
Explanation
Application files
Operating system files
The point of an incremental backup is to same time and media. There is no reason to back up application files or operating system files. Leave that job for the full backup. You can always reinstall programs. What you will want to backup are user documents and data.
Q-381
You want to connect Microsoft Windows 2000, Unix and Novel NetWare 4.1 Servers. What protocol must be installed on all three servers in order for them to communicate?
A
TCP/IP
B
IPX/SPX
C
NetBEUI
D
AppleTalk
Explanation
TCP/IP
The TCP/IP protocol is supported by Microsoft Windows 2000, Unix and Novell NetWare 4.1 Servers.
Q-382
What protocol is a dial-up connection protocol that can only transport the IP network communications protocol?
A
SLIP
B
PPP
C
PPPoE
D
PLIP
Explanation
SLIP
Serial Line Internet Protocol, software that allows the Internet Protocol (IP), normally used on Ethernet, to be used over a serial line, e.g. an RS-232 serial port connected to a modem. SLIP modifies a standard Internet datagram by appending a special SLIP END character to it, which allows datagrams to be distinguished separately. SLIP does not provide error detection, being reliant on other high-layer protocols for this.
Q-383
A computer on an IPX/SPX network has the following IPX address: 00452378:B25C37HG8DAC. Which part of the address is the node address?
A
B25C37HG8DAC
B
00452378
C
HG8DAC
D
B25C37
Explanation
B25C37HG8DAC
The node portion of the IPX address is actually the hardware address of the NIC.
Q-384
What is the name resolution system that is used on the Internet?
A
DNS
B
WINS
C
LMHOSTS
D
HOSTS
E
B-node Broadcast
F
H-node Broadcast
Explanation
DNS
Domain Name Services is a hierarchical server database, which contains host name to static IP address mappings.
Q-385
On a Windows NT Server 4.0 computer, what procedure would you follow from the Windows desktop to get to the dialog box that would allow you to install the DHCP Service?
A
Right-Click Network Neighborhood; Select Properties from the context menu; click the Service tab on the Network dialog box and click the Add button.
B
In Device Manager; Select Properties from the context menu; click the Service tab on the Network dialog box and click the Add button.
C
Using the Computer Management Console; Select Properties from the context menu; click the Service tab on the Network dialog box and click the Add button.
D
Highlight TCP/IP protocol in Control Panel; Select Properties from the context menu; click the Service tab on the Network dialog box and click the Add button.
Explanation
Right-Click Network Neighborhood; Select Properties from the context menu; click the Service tab on the Network dialog box and click the Add button.
Q-386
Below is an example of a MAC address.
00-15-FH-T6-03-2N
What part of the MAC address is the identification of the manufacturer of the NIC?
A
00-15-FH
B
T6-03-2N
C
FH-T6-03
D
00-15
Explanation
00-15-FH
The 12 hex digits of source address consist of the first/left 6 digits (which should match the vendor of the Ethernet network interface) and the last/right 6 digits which specify the interface serial number for that interface controller vendor (this gives 256 cubed addresses - or 16.78 million separate serial numbers).This allows each vendor to assign their own interface serial numbers, but also allows protocol monitors to examine the first 3 bytes of a frame address to determine the manufacturer of the interface card being used.
The following list identifies some of the blocks of assigned vendor MAC addresses (i.e. the first 3 bytes of a MAC source address).
00000C Cisco
00000E Fujitsu
00000F NeXT
000010 Sytek
00001D Cabletron
000020 DIAB (Data Intdustrier AB)
000022 Visual Technology
00002A TRW
000032 GPT Limited (reassigned from GEC Computers Ltd)
00005A S & Koch
00005E IANA
000065 Network General
00006B MIPS
000077 MIPS
00007A Ardent
000089 Cayman Systems Gatorbox
000093 Proteon
00009F Ameristar Technology
0000A2 Wellfleet
0000A3 Network Application Technology
0000A6 Network General (internal assignment, not for products)
0000A7 NCD X-terminals
0000A9 Network Systems
0000AA Xerox Xerox machines
Q-387
You have a preexisting Novell NetWare 4.11 network that uses its native protocol. You want to connect a Windows NT 4.0 Server to the network. What protocol should you install on the Windows NT 4.0 Server?
A
IPX/SPX
B
TCP/IP
C
NetBEUI
D
AppleTalk
Explanation
IPX/SPX
NetWare 4.11 supports TCP/IP but IPX/SPX is its native protocol. In this scenario, you have a "preexisting Novell NetWare 4.11 network that uses its native protocol".
Q-388
A user has repeatedly attempted to connect to the network with no success. Other workstations on the same network segment are able to connect with the network. You check the hub and find that the network cable is properly connected to Port 3. However, none of the indicator lights for Port 3 are lit. You confirm that Port 3 is working properly by temporarily attaching a different workstation's cable to it. You follow the Category 5 cable down from Port 3 through a tangle of wires to the workstation's network interface card, and again find that the cable is properly connected. However, none of the lights on the network interface card are lit. What are the two most likely sources of the problem? (Choose two.)
A
Failed Network Cable
B
Failed Network Interface
C
Failed hub
D
Failed server
Explanation
Failed Network Cable
Failed Network Interface
It is always good to start at the physical layer when troubleshooting. It is also the easiest to do.
Q-389
What information do routers use to forward packets to their destinations?
A
Network Address
B
Node Address
C
Hardware Address
D
MAC address
Explanation
Network Address
The router is just interested in getting the correct traffic onto the correct network. It is not too interested in the node number.
Hardware and MAC address are synonymous and are only interesting for layer 2 devices (bridges and switches).
Q-390
Which of the following can you use to view print jobs that are waiting to be printed on a UNIX server?
A
LPQ
B
LPR
C
PING
D
IPConfig
Explanation
LPQ
LPQ displays status of a remote LPD print queue.
Q-391
You have some Macintosh computers connected to a Novell NetWare 4.11 network. You have been asked to give the Macintosh computers the ability to print on the NetWare network using AppleTalk. Which of the following services should you install on the NetWare 4.11 server to enable Macintosh computers to network print?
A
ATPS.NLM
B
LPR.NLM
C
LPQ.NLM
D
Spool.NLM
Explanation
ATPS.NLM
AppleTalk Print Services provides two main functions, AppleTalk print spooling and AppleTalk print serving. The AppleTalk print spooler advertises a NetWare print queue on an AppleTalk network and accepts print jobs submitted by Macintosh clients. The AppleTalk print server takes print jobs out of a NetWare print queue and sends them to a printer on the AppleTalk network.
NetWare uses NetWare loadable modules (NLMs) to provide management tools.
Q-392
You have designed a Token Ring Network that has a single IBM 8228 MAU. Five Computers will be connected to the MAU. All five should be able to communicate with the Token Ring network after they are connected. How should you configure the network?
A
By connecting the computers to the Tokin Ring user ports only.
B
By connecting the computers to the Ring Out port.
C
By connecting the computers to the Ring In port.
D
By connecting the computers to each other in a bus topology.
Explanation
By connecting the computers to the Tokin Ring user ports only.
The Multistation Access Unit (MAU) is the central cabling component for IBM Token Ring networks. The 8228 MAU was the original wiring hub developed by IBM for Token Ring networks. Each 8228 has ten connectors, eight of which accept cables to workstations or servers. The other connectors are labeled RI (ring in) and RO (ring out). The RI and RO connectors are used to connect multiple 8228s to form larger networks.
Q-393
You want to configure your Linux computer to run on your LAN. Which utility should you use to configure the IP address for the network card?
A
IFconfig
B
IPConfig
C
Config
D
Winipcfg
Explanation
IFconfig
IFconfig is the Unix/Linux command to configure the IP address for the network card. The "If" stands for interface.
Config is the command for NetWare.
Winipcfg is the configuration command for Windows 9x.
IPconfig is the command on Windows NT and 2000.
Q-394
What is required for a functioning digital signature? (Choose three.)
A
a public key
B
a digital certificate
C
a private key
D
Kerberos
Explanation
a public key
a digital certificate
a private key
Digital signatures are designed to prove that a particular individual authorized a document, just as in the physical world. In order to be able to create a digital signature, you need a private key. (Its corresponding public key will be needed in order to verify the authenticity of the signature.)
A digital signature can be used with any kind of message, whether it is encrypted or not, simply so that the receiver can be sure of the sender's identity and that the message arrived intact. A digital certificate contains the digital signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that anyone can verify that the certificate is real.
A digital certificate is issued by a certification authority (CA). It contains your name, a serial number, expiration dates, a copy of the certificate holder's public key (used for encrypting messages and digital signatures), and the digital signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that a recipient can verify that the certificate is real. Some digital certificates conform to a the X.509 standard.
Q-395
Which class of IP network addresses has a value of between 128 and 191 for the first octet?
A
Class B
B
Class A
C
Class C
D
Class D
Explanation
Class B
IP network addresses with a value of between 128 and 191 for the first octet are Class C. Notice that 128 is 1000 0000 in binary and 191 is 1011 1111. So, this range of addresses are all the addresses with the first two digits 10 (That is one and zero. Not ten).
Q-396
What should an administrator do to expand a network, improve security and reduce congestion?
A
Subnet using a custom subnet mask.
B
Use a tunneling protocol.
C
Use encryption.
D
Use an access control list (ACL).
Explanation
Subnet using a custom subnet mask.
The other choices would increase security but do nothing to reduce congestion or expand the network. Using a custom subnet mask, an administrator can filter traffic increasing security and reducing congestion. He or she can also increase the availability of IP addresses when expanding the network.
Q-397
What is the correct command to configure the IP address 172.16.1.1 to eth0 with the default subnet mask on a Linux computer?
A
IFconfig eth0 172.16.1.1 netmask 255.255.0.0
B
Ipconfig eth0 172.16.1.1 netmask 255.255.0.0
C
IFconfig eth0 172.16.1.1 netmask 255.255.255.0
D
Ipconfig eth0 172.16.1.1 netmask 255.255.255.0
Explanation
IFconfig eth0 172.16.1.1 netmask 255.255.0.0
Using the IFconfig command and the correct default subnet mask this is the correct command to configure the IP address 172.16.1.1 to eth0.
Q-398
Why is Frame Relay much faster at performing basic packet-switching operations than other switching systems?
A
It uses PVCs, so there is no need to provide best path routing.
B
The frame size is larger than other switching systems.
C
Frame Relay uses fiber optic medium.
D
Frame Relay broadcasts packets.
Explanation
It uses PVCs, so there is no need to provide best path routing.
Like X.25, Frame Relay uses both PVCs (Permanent Virtual Circuits) and SVCs (Switched Virtual Circuits), although most Frame Relay networks use only PVCs. This virtual circuit provides the complete path to the destination network prior to the sending of the first frame. To read more about PVCs scroll down.
1. The user’s network device sends a frame out on the local network. The hardware address of the router (default gateway) will be in the header of the frame.
2. The router picks up the frame, extracts the packet, and discards the frame. It then looks at the destination IP address within the packet and checks to see whether it knows how to get to the destination network by looking in the routing table.
3. The router then forwards the data out the interface that it thinks can find the remote network. (If it can’t find the network in its routing table, it will discard the packet.) Because this will be a serial interface encapsulated with Frame Relay, the router puts the packet onto the Frame Relay network encapsulated within a Frame Relay frame. It will add a DLCI number associated with the serial interface. DLCIs identify the virtual circuit (PVC or SVC) to the routers and provider’s switches participating in the Frame Relay network.
4. The channel service unit/data service unit (CSU/DSU) receives the digital signal and encodes it into the type of digital signaling that the switch at the Packet Switch Exchange (PSE) can understand. The PSE receives the digital signal and extracts the 1s and 0s from the line.
5. The CSU/DSU is connected to a demarcation (demarc) installed by the service provider, and its location is the service provider’s first point of responsibility. The demarc is typically just an RJ-45 jack installed close to the router and CSU/DSU.
Q-399
How many channels exist on a T1 line?
A
24
B
3
C
144
D
1
Explanation
24
A T1 line has 24 channels with a total speed of 1.54 Mbs.
Q-400
Which well-known UDP port does NetBIOS use?
A
137
B
80
C
119
D
21
Explanation
137
It is a good idea to be familiar with a few of the well-known ports.
80 is HTTP
21 is FTP
119 is NNTP
Q-401
Which disk storage system provides no fault tolerance?
A
Disk striping
B
Disk mirroring
C
Disk striping with parity
D
Disk duplexing
Explanation
Disk striping
RAID 0, also referred to as disk striping, is the process of evenly writing data across the several drives. (In Windows 2000 RAID 0 uses between 2 and 32 hard drives.) There is a low disk overhead for RAID 0 because all of the drive space is used. If one drive fails, however, all of the data is lost. The main reason to implement RAID 0 is to increase the read and write or input and output performance of your hardware.
Q-402
You need to solve a traffic problem occurring on a large Ethernet network. Within this large segment, the accounting department is flooding the network with a high volume of data which causes the entire network to slow down. Which device is a quick and low-cost solution to isolating the accounting department?
A
Bridge
B
Router
C
Hub
D
Repeater
Explanation
Bridge
The only other device listed that would isolate the accounting department is a router. However, a router is not a low-cost solution.
Q-403
Which characteristic describes the IEEE 802.3 100Base-TX Fast Ethernet standard?
A
It specifies UTP Category 5 data-graded cable.
B
It specifies UTP Category 3 data-graded cable.
C
It specifies STP Category 5 data-graded cable.
D
It specifies fiber optic cable.
Explanation
It specifies UTP Category 5 data-graded cable
This is the only true statement listed.
Q-404
How can you reduce network traffic when backing up multiple servers across a network? (Choose two.)
A
Schedule the backups during non-business hours.
B
Place the backup computer on an isolated network.
C
Back up once every day with a full backup once a week.
D
Make copies of the backup tape.
Explanation
Schedule the backups during non-business hours.
Place the backup computer on an isolated network.
By scheduling the backups during non-business hours you will not tie up the network during the times when bandwidth is need most.
By placing the backup computer on an isolated network and not centrally, all backup traffic will not have to cross networks with already high bandwidth usage.
Q-405
Which services can be used to obtain IP addresses dynamically? (Choose two.)
A
BootP
B
DHCP
C
DNS
D
HHTP
Explanation
DHCP and BootP
DHCP is more sophisticated than BootP to support advanced client computers. DHCP was the first dynamic version of BootP designed for clients that did not need an image from the TFTP server. Configuring the BootP table includes indicating the boot image file name, the full server path to the boot image, and the Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) file server.
Q-406
Which protocol was created to allow diskless workstations to boot by downloading the operating system from the network in addition to obtaining IP address information?
A
BootP
B
DHCP
C
DNS
D
NetPC
Explanation
BootP
BootP (bootstrap protocol) is the host configuration that precedes DHCP. BOOTP was originally
designed for client computers that did not have disks. Configuring BOOTP support consists of setting up the BOOTP table and enabling the scope to support BOOTP clients. Configuring the BOOTP table includes indicating the boot image file name, the full server path to the boot image, and the Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) file server. Windows 2000 DHCP server also provides support for dynamic BOOTP.
Q-407
Which protocol responds to PING requests?
A
ICMP
B
LPR
C
LPQ
D
ROUTE
Explanation
ICMP
Ping- will send ICMP echo packets to verify connections to a remote host (or local if using the loopback address).
Q-408
What device should you use if you want to provide NAT on a network?
A
an IP proxy
B
an HTTP proxy
C
a Firewall
D
DHCP
Explanation
an IP proxy
An IP proxy dialup account allows you to connect as many computers as you like to a single connection. Using proxy software on your host machine, or a NAT capable router you can provide web access and other services to all of your workstations.
Q-409
What is the name of the square fiber optic connector?
A
SC connector
B
ST connector
C
MIC connector
D
VF-45 connector
Explanation
SC connector
The ST connector is barrel shaped.
The MIC connector is shaped like the Greek letter pi.
The VF-45 connector looks a lot like the RJ-45.
Q-410
You are experiencing connection problems with the fiber-optic cables in your 100BaseFX LAN. What is most likely the cause of the problem?
A
The cable is not properly terminated.
B
The cable is not properly grounded.
C
Network congestion is too great.
D
Attenuation
Explanation
The cable is not properly terminated
This is a common problem with fiber optic cables because of the relative difficulty working with fiber cables and connectors. Even a piece of dust can hinder you doing a good job. Not only that, there are many different methods available for termination which require great skill. For instance, epoxies, polishing, hot melts or crimping.
Q-411
Robert often sends confidential information, via e-mail, over the Internet. Robert is aware that this information could be intercepted as it travels over the Internet, so he wants to employ a method that will keep all but the intended recipient from viewing the contents of the e-mail. What should he use to secure the contents of his e-mail?
A
Encryption
B
MIME
C
IMAP
D
SMTP
Explanation
Encryption
Robert can use encryption to keep all but the intended recipient from viewing the contents of the e-mail.
Q-412
You want to set up a network with a Windows NT 4.0 server and four Macintosh clients. You have already installed all the necessary hardware. Which steps should you take?
A
Install Services for Macintosh on the Windows NT 4.0 Server.
B
Install TCP/IP on the Windows NT 4.0 Server.
C
Install TCP/IP on the workstations.
D
Install Services for Macintosh on the workstations.
Explanation
Install Services for Macintosh on the Windows NT 4.0 Server
When you set up Services for Macintosh on a computer running Windows NT Server, the AppleTalk Protocol, File Server for Macintosh, and the Print Server for Macintosh are all enabled. In order to activate Services for Macintosh, you must install NT Services for Macintosh and selecting or creating an AppleTalk zone. Since Services for Macintosh isn't isn't installed by default, you may need the Windows NT Server CD-ROM to enable Macintosh users to access the server.
You must also create an AppleShare-compatible server volume (called a "Macintosh volume" in NT Server) on the server and set access permissions
Q-413
Which standard is known as Gigabit Ethernet?
A
1000Base-SX
B
10Base-SX
C
100Base-SX
D
T1
Explanation
1000Base-SX
Gigabit Ethernet is the newest version of Ethernet, which supports data transfer rates of 1 Gigabit (1,000 megabits) per second. The first Gigabit Ethernet standard (802.3z) was ratified by the IEEE 802.3 Committee in 1998
Q-414
What is the Ethernet-standard designation for a fiber-optic Fast Ethernet network topology?
A
1000Base-FX
B
100Base-TX
C
Gigabyte Ethernet
D
T1
Explanation
100Base-FX
Fast Ethernet is any Ethernet specification with a speed of 100Mbps. Fast Ethernet is ten times faster than 10BaseT, while retaining qualities like MAC mechanisms, MTU, and frame format. These similarities make it possible for existing 10BaseT applications and management tools to be used on Fast Ethernet networks. There are several different cabling schemes that can be used with 100BASE-T, including:
100BASE-TX: two pairs of high-quality twisted-pair wires
100BASE-T4: four pairs of normal-quality twisted-pair wires
100BASE-FX: fiber optic cables
Q-415
Which characteristic describes Frame Relay?
A
It offers a Committed Information Rate (CIR).
B
It uses dynamic routing protocols.
C
It is the same as Gigabit Ethernet.
D
It uses only fiber optic cabling.
Explanation
It offers a Committed Information Rate (CIR).
Frame Relay provides a packet-switched network to many different customers at the same time. This is a great idea because it spreads the cost of the switches among many customers. However, Frame Relay is based on the assumption that not all customers need to transmit constant data all at the same time. Frame Relay works best with bursty traffic.
Frame Relay works by providing a dedicated bandwidth to each user, who is committed to that bandwidth at any given time. Frame Relay providers allow customers to buy a lower amount of bandwidth than what they really might need. This is called the Committed Information Rate (CIR).
What this means is that the customer can buy bandwidth of, for example, 256k, but it is possible to burst up to T-1 speeds. The CIR specifies that as long as the data input by a device to the Frame Relay network is below or equal to the CIR then the network will continue to forward data for the
PVC. However, if data rates exceed the CIR, it is not guaranteed.
Q-416
You manually assigned a registered class C IP address to each computer on a small network. Each computer now has connectivity to the Internet through a DSL connection. You realize that without a firewall this configuration poses a high security risk. Also, you need to ensure that the IP addresses of the internal computers are hidden from outside networks. Which service could you implement to increase the security of your network? (Choose two.)
A
NAT
B
NAS
C
SAN
D
WAN
E
Proxy server
F
DNS server
Explanation
NAT (Network Address Translation)
Proxy server
Q-417
From which protocol did Network Time Protocol (NTP) evolve?
A
ICMP
B
NNTP
C
NFS
D
IPX
Explanation
ICMP
Q-418
You are called to troubleshoot system problems occurring at your company's corporate campus. You are responding to complaints about diskless network workstations rebooting spontaneously. Upon arrival, you quickly survey the work environment. You observe the following:
· Lighting consists mainly of fluorescent lights.
· Temperature is 65 degrees Fahrenheit (18 degrees Celsius).
· Humidity is 80%.
· Employees are using space heaters.
· Electrical outlets appear outdated.
What is the most likely cause of the spontaneous rebooting problem?
A
Fluctuating voltage at the outlets
B
Attenuation
C
Overheating
D
Network congestion
Explanation
Fluctuating voltage at the outlets
That is why it is a good idea to use UPS in a "mission critical" server room.
Q-419
Which type of networking uses small 53-byte blocks or cells to transport information through the network?
A
ATM
B
T1
C
Ethernet
D
VG AnyLAN
Explanation
ATM
Asynchronous Transfer Mode is the international standard, identified by fixed-length 53-byte cells, for transmitting cells in multiple service systems, such as voice, video, or data. Transit delays are reduced because the fixed-length cells permit processing to occur in the hardware. ATM is designed to maximize the benefits of high-speed transmission media, such as SONET, E3, and T3.
Q-420
What is the D channel used for in Primary Rate ISDN (PRI)?
A
It carries signaling and link management data.
B
It carries encryption information.
C
It carries voice.
D
It carries the payload.
Explanation
It carries signaling and link management data.
The D channel is the data channel 16Kbps (BRI) or 64Kbps (PRI) ISDN channel.
Q-421
Assuming the default subnet mask is used, what is the network portion of the IP address given below?
124.128.86.15
A
15
B
124
C
124.128
D
86.15
Explanation
124
Assuming the default subnet mask is used only the first octet belongs to the network portion of a Class A IP address.
Q-422
What is the lowest category or level of UTP cable that you should use as transmission medium for a small LAN communicating in the 10-Mbps range?
A
Category 3
B
Category 5
C
Category 7
D
Category 9
Explanation
Category 3
10BaseT Part of the original IEEE 802.3 standard, 10BaseT is the Ethernet specification of 10Mbps baseband that uses two pairs of twisted-pair, Category 3, 4, or 5 cabling—using one pair to send data and the other to receive. 10BaseT has a distance limit of about 100 meters per segment.
Q-423
Which term refers to standardized levels of disk fault tolerance?
A
RAID
B
IPSec
C
PPPoE
D
ARCNet
Explanation
RAID
In order to secure a system against loss of valuable data, establish some sort of fault tolerance program. This program will allow recovery of data should there be a disk failure. RAID (Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks) is a method of disk configuration that will assist in this goal.
Q-424
How many segments can be joined together using repeaters in a 10Base5 network?
A
5
B
3
C
4
D
2
Explanation
5
Some specifications for 10Base5 are:
- The maximum length of a segment is 500 m (1640 feet).
- The maximum length of cable is 2.5 km (1.5 miles) using repeaters.
- Devices attach to the backbone via transceivers.
- Both ends of each segment should be terminated with a 50-ohm resistor.
- One end of each segment should be grounded to earth.
Q-425
Which encryption method uses both public and private keys to encrypt and decrypt messages?
A
Public Key Encryption
B
IPSec Encryption
C
L2TP Encryption
D
Private Key Encryption
Explanation
Public Key Encryption
A cryptographic system that uses two keys - a public key known to everyone and a private or secret key known only to the recipient of the message. For example, when Liam wants to send a secure message to Olivia, he uses Olivia's public key to encrypt the message. Olivia then uses her private key to decrypt it.
An important element to the public key system is that the public and private keys are related in such a way that only the public key can be used to encrypt messages and only the corresponding private key can be used to decrypt them. Moreover, it is virtually impossible to deduce the private key if you know the public key.
Public key cryptography was invented in 1976 by Whitfield Diffie and Martin Hellman. For this reason, it is sometime called Diffie-Hellman encryption. It is also called asymmetric encryption because it uses two keys instead of one key (symmetric encryption).
Q-426
Which parameters can DHCP dynamically supply? (Choose all that apply.)
A
IP Address
B
Subnet Mask
C
Default Gateway
D
User Authentication
Explanation
IP Address
Subnet Mask
Default Gateway
Configuration information supplied to DHCP clients by a DHCP server include:
• IP address
• Subnet Mask
• Default gateway address
• Domain Name Server (DNS) address
• NetBIOS Name Server address
Q-427
You want to provide mission-critical level security for your company's servers in the event of a fire, flood, or earthquake. Where should a copy of the system backup tapes be stored to insure that the servers can be rebuilt in a minimal amount of time should such a disaster occur?
A
An offsite building
B
In a fireproof safe
C
On a domain controller
D
In a locked closet
Explanation
An offsite building
Even a fireproof safe does not ensure the security of backup tapes in cases of natural disaster. The other choices are completely bogus.
Q-428
Your company has a corporate-wide Windows NT network using the TCP/IP protocol. Several users are complaining that their computers are getting IP address conflicts. What is the preferred solution to this problem?
A
Implement a DHCP Server.
B
Implement a DNS Server.
C
Implement a Proxy Server.
D
Assign static IP addresses.
Explanation
Implement a DHCP Server
DHCP servers reduce the amount of administration costs and reduce the chance of human error while configuring clients.
Q-429
Which applications use UDP? (Choose all that apply.)
A
SNMP
B
TFTP
C
NFS
D
IP
Explanation
NFS, TFTP, SNMP
These protocols live above the transport layer and rely on UDP for delivery.
Q-430
Which protocols reside in the OSI layer that is directly above the layer containing Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
A
UDP
B
TCP
C
HTTP
D
ARP
Explanation
TCP and UDP
These protocols reside in the transport layer, just above the network layer where IP resides.
ARP resides at the Data Link layer and HTTP at the application layer.
Q-431
How can you limit access to content on your Web server without requiring visitors to authenticate?
A
Use a port number other than 80 for HTTP requests
B
Use a port number other than 8080 for HTTP requests
C
Use a port number other than 25 for HTTP requests
D
Use a port number other than 21 for HTTP requests
Explanation
Use a port number other than 80 for HTTP requests
Port 80 is the default port number for HTTP.
Q-432
Which class of network addresses is reserved for experimental use?
A
Class E
B
Class D
C
Class C
D
Class B
E
Class A
F
Class F
Explanation
Class E
There is no Class F.
Q-433
Which improvements does IPv6 provide over the current IP addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A
Some header fields have been dropped or made optional.
B
The IP header option allows more efficient forwarding and less rigid length limits.
C
The elimination of headers, providing a "pure" data packet.
D
The elimination of broadcasts.
Explanation
Some header fields have been dropped or made optional.
The IP header option allows more efficient forwarding and less rigid length limits.
IPng or IPv6 was designed to take an evolutionary step from IPv4. Functions which work in IPv4 were kept in IPng. Functions which didn't work were removed. Some changes were:
- Expanded Routing and Addressing Capabilities. IPng increases the IP address size from 32 bits to 128 bits, to support more levels of addressing hierarchy and a much greater number of addressable nodes, and simpler auto-configuration of addresses.
- Scalability of multicast routing is improved by adding a "scope" field to multicast addresses.
- "Anycast address" to identify sets of nodes where a packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to one of the nodes. The use of anycast addresses in the IPng source route allows nodes to control the path which their traffic flows.
- Some IPv4 header fields have been dropped or made optional, to reduce the common-case processing cost of packet handling and to keep the bandwidth cost of the IPng header as low as possible despite the increased size of the addresses. Even though the IPng addresses are four time longer than the IPv4 addresses, the IPng header is only twice the size of the IPv4 header.
Q-434
You are planning to send a highly sensitive document via e-mail to a coworker in another office. The document you are sending contains the company's financial figures. It is extremely critical that these numbers arrive safely at their destination with no possibility of tampering. What should you use to ensure that the document arrives safely?
A
Digital Signature
B
Kerberos
C
PPP
D
Encryption
Explanation
Digital Signature
Digital signatures are designed to prove that a particular individual authorized a document just as in the physical world. In order to be able to create a digital signature you need a private key. (Its corresponding public key will be needed in order to verify the authenticity of the signature.)
A digital signature can be used with any kind of message, whether it is encrypted or not, simply so that the receiver can be sure of the sender's identity and that the message arrived intact. A digital certificate contains the digital signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that anyone can verify that the certificate is real.
A digital certificate is issued by a certification authority (CA). It contains your name, a serial number, expiration dates, a copy of the certificate holder's public key (used for encrypting messages and digital signatures) and the digital signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that a recipient can verify that the certificate is real. Some digital certificates conform to a the X.509 standard.
Q-435
What is the tendency of electromagnetic waves to weaken due to absorption and scattering in a transmission medium called?
A
Attenuation
B
Crosstalk
C
Jitter
D
EMI
Explanation
Attenuation
Attenuation is the degrading of a signal as it travels farther from its origination.
Crosstalk is signal overflow from one wire to another adjacent wire.
Jitter is instability in a signal wave caused by signal interference or an unbalanced FDDI Ring or Token Ring.
Q-436
Andrew wants to access the CompTIA Web site to obtain more information about Network+ certification. He enters http://www.comptia.org/ into his Web browser's address line. By default, which port number will his browser use to connect to the Web server?
A
80
B
119
C
8080
D
21
Explanation
80
Q-437
A user calls you to complain that he was unable to log on to the network at 10:00 PM the previous evening, although he can log on now. What were the most likely causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A
Insufficient user rights based on the time of the first logon attempt.
B
The network was being backed up.
C
EMI
D
Attenuation
Explanation
Insufficient user rights based on the time of the first logon attempt.
The network was being backed up.
Let us start with the most likely cause of the problem - user error. That is not a choice. Of the choices the most likely is the user did not have appropriate access rights. It is not unusual for a remote access policy on the authenticating server to limit access based on time. Perhaps, the network administrators do their backups between 10:00 and 11:00 every evening.
That brings us to the second most likely possibility the network servers were being backed up and therefore inaccessible.
Q-438
Which term is commonly used to describe any network device that can request network resources?
A
Client
B
Server
C
Peer
D
Node
Explanation
Client
Q-439
Which two technologies use the token-passing media-access method?
A
Token Ring
B
FDDI
C
Ethernet
D
ATM
Explanation
FDDI and Token Ring
Fiber distributed data internet and Token Ring both use the token-passing media-access method.
Q-440
You are a system administrator. A user calls you complaining that he cannot run an application that he has been running for weeks. Other users on the network can still run the application. Which questions are the most reasonable to ask him to help troubleshoot the problem?
A
What happens when the user runs the application?
B
What has changed on the system since the application last?
C
Does the user really need this application?
D
What is the user's password?
Explanation
What happens when the user runs the application?
What has changed on the system since the application last?
Both of these questions would help an administrator to isolate a network problem with an application.
Q-441
Your company is using the 1.0 version of an e-mail client which contains some programming bugs that are causing minor problems. An upgrade version of this software was recently released, and according to the documentation, contains fixes to the programming bugs found in the 1.0 version. It also includes new features that most users would find helpful. You have decided to upgrade to the newest version of the software. How should you implement the upgrade?
A
Install the software in a testing environment before attempting the upgrade on the workstations. This will ensure that the upgrade does not cause any adverse affects on the network.
B
Install the software in a domain controller before attempting the upgrade on the workstations. This will ensure that the upgrade does not cause any adverse affects on the network.
C
Install the software on demilitarized zone before attempting the upgrade on the workstations. This will ensure that the upgrade does not cause any adverse affects on the network.
D
Install the software on a workstation before attempting the upgrade on the other workstations. This will ensure that the upgrade does not cause any adverse affects on the network.
Explanation
Install the software in a testing environment before attempting the upgrade on the workstations. This will ensure that the upgrade does not cause any adverse affects on the network.
This would represent the best practice that would present the least disruption incase the upgrade does not work.
Q-442
The data stored on your network is fully backed up every Friday night. In between those full backups, differential backups are performed each Monday through Thursday night. In the event that a failure occurs on Thursday morning and data must be entirely restored, how many tape sets will be needed for the restoration?
A
Two
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
Five
F
Six
Explanation
Two
To restore differential backups you always need two tapes. The last full backup and the last differential backup.
Q-443
Which protocol synchronizes network time to a time source, usually on the Internet?
A
NTP
B
TCP
C
TIM
D
IMAP
Explanation
NTP
Network Time Protocol
Q-444
What provides packet filtering and is associated with the use of a demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A
Firewall
B
Web server
C
Proxy
D
NAT
Explanation
Firewall
A Demilitarized Zone is used by a company that wants to host its own Internet services without sacrificing unauthorized access to its private network. The DMZ sits between the Internet and an internal network's line of defense, usually some combination of firewalls and bastion hosts. Typically, the DMZ contains devices accessible to Internet traffic, such as Web (HTTP ) servers, FTP servers, SMTP (e-mail) servers and DNS servers.
Q-445
Which features apply to the PPP protocol? (Choose two.)
A
Provides Error Checking capabilities
B
Allows Password encryption
C
It is a tunneling protocol
D
Encrypts the data payload
Explanation
Provides Error Checking capabilities
Allows Password encryption
Point-to Point Protocol is the Internet standard for transmitting network layer datagrams (e.g. IP packets) over serial point-to-point links. PPP has a number of advantages over SLIP; it is designed to operate both over asynchronous connections and bit-oriented synchronous systems (ISDN) and it can configure connections to a remote network dynamically and test that the link is usable. PPP can be configured to encapsulate different network layer protocols (such as IP, IPX or AppleTalk) by using the appropriate Network Control Protocol (NCP).
Q-446
Which protocol would allow you to view the heading and sender of an e-mail message before downloading it to your local computer?
A
IMAP4
B
SMTP
C
MIME
D
SMIME
Explanation
IMAP4
Short for Internet Message Access Protocol, a protocol for retrieving e-mail messages. The latest version, IMAP4, is similar to POP3 but supports some additional features. For example, with IMAP4 you can search through your e-mail messages for keywords while the messages are still on mail server. You can then choose which messages to download to your machine.
Q-447
You just installed an internal modem in a computer. You are now configuring it to use COM port 1. Which standard IRQ address corresponds to COM port 1?
A
4
B
1
C
2
D
3
Explanation
4
Com1 and 3 use IRQ4. Com2 and 4 use IRQ3.
Q-448
A full backup is performed on your network servers weekly. In conjunction with the full backup, a daily backup is performed on all of the files that have changed since the last full backup. Which type of backup are the daily backups?
A
Differential
B
Incremental
C
Full
D
Daily
Explanation
Differential
A differential backup is performed on all of the files that have changed since the last full backup. The archive bit is not set.
Q-449
What is the default subnet mask for class B networks?
A
255.255.0.0
B
255.255.255.0
C
255.255.255.255
D
255.0.0.0
Explanation
255.255.0.0
Q-450
Which protocols do Network Attached Storage (NAS) devices use? (Choose three.)
A
SMB
B
NFS
C
HTTP
D
IPX
Explanation
SMB, NFS, HTTP
With protocols like TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol), SMB (Server Message Block), NFS (Network File System), HTTP (Hyper Text Transport Protocol) network attached storage devices can communicate with the LAN.
Q-451
Which connection type is used by several Internet Service Providers (ISPs) on the Internet backbone because of its 155-Mbps to 622-Mbps potential bandwidth?
A
ATM
B
T1
C
Leased Line
D
T3
Explanation
ATM
Common ATM speeds are based on the SONET optical carrier speeds. One OC unit is 51.84 Mbps. Therefore OC-3 is 155 Mbps and OC-12 is 622 Mbps.
OC-24 is available but incredibly expensive and only used on the biggest carrier's backbone.
Q-452
Which IP address falls into one of the three blocks of IP addresses set aside by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) for private networks?
A
10.172.13.8
B
101.172.13.8
C
190.172.13.8
D
210.172.13.8
Explanation
10.172.13.8
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 are not valid Internet addresses.
Q-453
As the network administrator, you are troubleshooting a problem that Pam is having in the Payroll department. When she logs on to the network from her computer, she cannot open the database application located on the network server. She has tried logging off and then logging back on using another machine, but she is still unable to open the application. However, the coworkers in her department are able to open the application. What should you do first?
A
Check her rights and permissions.
B
Check that she is using the correct logon name and password.
C
Check that her machine is connected to the network.
D
Check that the database is shared.
Explanation
Check her rights and permissions.
By the process of elimination we can eliminate all but this possibility. Let's look at the scenario: "When she logs on to the network from her computer, she cannot open the database application located on the network server." This means she can log on to the network, eliminating the wrong password or username or connectivity possibilities.
Also, "coworkers in her department are able to open the application." This means the database is accessible and the server is up. So, that leaves only one choice.
Q-454
Which connection type contains 672 channels, allowing for connections of up to 44.736 Mbps?
A
T3
B
T1
C
OC-12
D
OC-1
Explanation
T3
This is also referred to as a DS3 connection.
Q-455
You are about to perform routine maintenance on the network. The network must remain inaccessible while you work. You send a message with the packet header 137.255.255.255. What does that packet address accomplish?
A
Broadcasts your message to all workstations on the 137 network.
B
Broadcasts your message to all workstations on the 137 network.
C
Multicasts your message to all workstations on the 137.255 network.
D
Multicasts your message to all workstations on the 137.255 network.
Explanation
Broadcasts your message to all workstations on the 137 network.
255.255.255.255 is a broadcast to all networks. 137.255.255.255 is a broadcast to only the network with the network number 137.
Q-456
Which device is used in a wireless network to give a station a larger range of connectivity than the 91 meters (300 feet) of radius in an ad-hoc implementation?
A
Access Point
B
Access Control Table
C
Roaming support
D
Radius Authentication
Explanation
Access Point
The wireless access point that acts as a bridge between the wired Ethernet backbone and your wireless clients.
Q-457
You want to set up a network with a Windows NT 4.0 server, a Novell NetWare 5.1 server and three Windows 9x clients. You have already installed all the necessary hardware. You want to allow the Windows 9x clients to access the NetWare 5.1 server. Which steps should you take? (Choose two.)
A
Install TCP/IP on all the servers.
B
Install Novell NetWare Client 4.x on the Windows 9x machines.
C
Install IPX/SPX on the Windows 9x machines.
D
Install NWLink on all the servers.
Explanation
Install TCP/IP on all the servers.
Install Novell NetWare Client 4.x on the Windows 9x machines
Novell NetWare 5.1 servers can support the TCP/IP protocol. You should install Novell NetWare Client on the Windows machines for them to access the NetWare server.
Q-458
Your computer is connected to a hub with a 10BaseT patch cable. You are unable to connect to other computers on the network. The green link light is lit on all hub ports except the one to which your computer is attached. Hardware diagnostics on your computer's network interface card indicate no problems. When a different computer is plugged into that port, the green link light comes on. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A
Faulty Patch Cable
B
Network congestion
C
Faulty NIC
D
Faulty Server
Explanation
Faulty Patch Cable
You have already eliminated the hub port as the likely cause of failure. The NIC is also functioning. What is there between the computer and the hub? Right! A faulty patch cable.
Q-459
You have a Windows NT network with 35 Windows 98 computers. Each of the Windows 98 computers has three 10-GB hard drives, 128 MB of RAM, a floppy drive, a Zip drive and a Pentium III 500-MHz processor. You need to ensure that your system is virus-free. Where must you install antivirus software?
A
On both the PDC and the Windows 98 Computers
B
On both the proxy server and the Windows 98 Computers
C
On the Windows 98 Computers
D
On the PDC
Explanation
On both the PDC and the Windows 98 Computers
Files are read and written to both the file server and the client. For the best protection install an anti-virus software suite on both the PDC and the Windows 98 Computers.
Q-460
What is the best way to provide continuous power to servers and protect them against electrical surges?
A
UPS
B
DNS
C
Line Conditioner
D
KVM
Explanation
UPS
An Uninterruptible Power Supply unit provides continuous power to servers and protect them against electrical surges.
Q-461
What is the primary purpose of Kerberos 5?
A
It provides a secure method for authenticating network service requests.
B
It provides logging and auditing capability for network service requests.
C
It provides IP filtering.
D
It provides file encryption for Windows 2000.
Explanation
It provides a secure method for authenticating network service requests.
Kerberos 5, developed at MIT, supports single logon, allowing faster authentication and faster network response. Kerberos 5 is the primary security protocol for domains in Windows 2000.
Encrypting File System (EFS) provides file encryption for Windows 2000.
RADIUS provides auditing and logging capability for network access. Firewalls and Proxy services provide IP filtering.
Q-462
Your company network contains four subnetworks with different classes of Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. You need to connect the networks. Which device should you use to connect the subnetworks?
A
Router
B
Hub
C
Switch
D
Transceiver
Explanation
Router
A router is the device used to connect different network segments.
Q-463
You are connecting a network to the Internet. You applied for and received a class C license. However, there are over 300 hosts that need access to the Internet and your class C license will not allow this number of unique IP addresses. What should you implement to allow the hosts to connect to the Internet?
A
NAT
B
ICS
C
DNS
D
NET SHARE
Explanation
NAT
The NAT server's public interface will be assigned the Class C IP address from InterNIC. Each of the three hundred clients will be assigned one of the private address classes to eliminate any IP conflicts with IP addresses that were allocated by InterNIC. The default IP address range is 192.168.0.0/24.
Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) is a mini-NAT but reaches its limit with just a few computers sharing one connection.
DNS provides name to IP address translation.
NET SHARE is a command line file sharing utility on Windows machines.